Then you are saying that God is not omniscient which also means he is not omnipotent. That is not God. Also, your thinking demonstrates the notion that God is subject to time, and whatever other things you consider 'reality'. In your thinking, God is not the 'inventor' of time and reality.
All things begin with God. Apart from him, there was nothing—no principles, no fact, no reality— until he created. All other things depend on and logically descend from his creating.
What scripture in your mind proves that he is either of those things? FutureAndAHope provided a scripture. Maybe only one, but there are others. In addition to Genesis 6:6, I would also add:
1 Samuel 15:35
Jeremiah 3:6,7
Of course, there are many that support your viewpoint as well:
Isaiah 44:6
Isaiah 48:12
Revelation 1:8
Revelation 21:6
Revelation 22:13
Whether or not God invented time is something neither of us can prove or disprove. Yes, we can infer from creation that God created "our" reality, but there is nothing that tells us what is in God's reality.
Can you prove that man has freewill? It seems to be one of the foundations of your theory.
Can you prove that man does not have free will? Atheists believe that all of reality and our actions is a mere result of billions (or more) of variables that are the almost infinite calculations of every particle in the universe. How would that be any different than having a God that does not give mankind free will? And how do you have free will when God knows what you will do in every second of your life from the time you are created?
If man does not have free will, then all sin and evil (and good as well) is caused by God. That is the logical end result from his creation if God chose to know what our choices would be. Why warn Adam and Eve, if God knew they were going to take the fruit anyway? Why does God question them afterwards? He obviously knew at this point that they took the fruit, but maybe he didn't know if they would have remorse, or blame each other as the text states. Their punishment was only stated after their response, and prophecies in the Bible only began after man sinned.
Why are there so many places in the Bible where Israel, Judah, a specific king or prophet is given a choice? Why is Noah in 2 Peter 2:5 referred to as "a preacher of righteousness"? Why is he preaching at all if God knows already that they will reject him and everyone but Noah's family will die? Why do we as Christians preach, if only certain people are predestined to be called to God anyway?
Much of the Bible makes little sense without free will.