I wrote a fictional text that dispensationalism "needed" but does not have.
Just as you quoted me saying it -- "Before the tribulation He will send His angels to gather His elect from one end of the sky to the other" in all of scripture.
I also wrote 2 verses. Matt 24:29 and Matt 24:31 as they actually are
Matt 24:
29 “But immediately after the tribulation of those days ...31 And He will send forth His angels with a great trumpet and they will gather together His elect from the four winds, from one end of the sky to the other.
which is incredibly problematic for dispensationalism
The full text still maintains the same sequence between vs 24 and vs 31. It is unchanged.
Let me prove to you that the Bible makes you SDA’s wrong. There is no way Matt 24:31 follows immediately after verse 29.
Matt 24:29-31 (ESV): 29 “Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. 30 Then will appear in heaven the sign of the Son of Man, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31 And he will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other.
Verse 29 occurs immediately after the Trib exhausts its 21 judgments of God’s wrath. It goes right into the specific phenomena associated with the ending of the Trib.
Verse 30 is about Heaven opening up for all to see Jesus Christ coming on the clouds of Heaven, to start the 2A (2nd Advent).
Verse 31 begins with “And he will … “
Here’s the proof you SDA’s are missing. Verse 29 makes no mention of Jesus. Notice the first words of verse 30: (“Then will appear in Heaven … “). Those are the first of anything about Jesus in these three verses. Verse 31 begins with, “And he will …”
Verse 29 does not mention Jesus at all. Verse 31 begins with, “And he will …”
How can Jesus continue in mention with, “And he will … “ immediately after verse 29 when Jesus is not mentioned at all in verse 29?
Verse 30 gets it right! It begins with, “Then will appear …”) which is clearly the first mention of Jesus in these three verses.
Do you get it? Verse 31’s secondary mentioning (“And he will”) can’t possibly immediately follow verse 29 that has no mention of Jesus. Verse 30 (“Then will appear …”) is the primary mention of Jesus.
It is therefore linguistically impossible for verse 31, a secondary mentioning (“And he will”) to immediately come after verse 29 (with no mentioning of Jesus).
The Bible thoroughly proves you SDA’s are completely wrong.