The angel's words are a definitive explanation of the very name of Jesus. The γάρ explicitly grounds the naming. His entire identity and mission on earth are defined by this statement. So the angel's words cannot be only a partial disclosure of that mission.
The name Jesus means "God saves". It does not mean "God will save the select few" or something like that. Where does it say the angel reveals the whole extent of the mission on Earth? The angel defines the kind of salvation, Jesus is the Saviour from sins, not worldly opression.
But that reading isn't grammatically defensible. The future indicative σώσει ("He will save") expresses a definite, declarative act, not an attempt, offer, or possibility. The construction σώσει τὸν λαὸν αὐτοῦ is a promise of fulfillment, not a general intention.
So your qualification, "not every individual Jew though," can only be introduced if defining "His people" in a way that likewise "does not include every individual Jew." Grammatically, the text doesn't allow for a subset within "His people." Whoever that phrase encompasses, their salvation is certain and complete. He will save "His people" from their sins.
In other words, either "His people" refers to all Jews (in which case the angel's statement fails, since not all Jews are saved), or it refers to the covenant people who truly belong to Him; that is, the ones who actually are saved. The grammar itself forces that conclusion.
The angel’s declaration is that Jesus will bring about the promised salvation of His people Israel, by delivering them from sin, thus fulfilling God’s covenant purpose. The verse isn’t addressing the individual scope of application.
ChatGPT
"Collective possessive
The Greek: τὸν λαὸν αὐτοῦ ἀπὸ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν αὐτῶν
τὸν λαὸν αὐτοῦ = “His people” (singular group noun)
ἀπὸ τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν αὐτῶν = “from their sins” (plural possessive)
Even though αὐτῶν is plural, it refers back to the group as a whole. This is called a corporate plural. The “sins of the people” are considered collectively, not necessarily as every individual sin accounted for one by one."
Even though αὐτῶν is plural, it refers back to the group as a whole. This is called a corporate plural. The “sins of the people” are considered collectively, not necessarily as every individual sin accounted for one by one."
So the grammar guarantees that the group as a whole will experience salvation, not every individual within the group.
Because the angel explicitly ties Jesus' name to His mission. The verse isn't a partial hint; it's the divine explanation of His very identity and purpose on earth: "You shall call His name Jesus, for He will save His people from their sins."
Matt. 1:21 isn't a statement about who Jesus ministered to first; it's a statement defining His entire identity and purpose on earth.
Again, where does it say the angel reveals the whole extent of Jesus plan on Earth? The angel tells Joseph the essential purpose of Jesus life: He is the Savior from sin. It defines the nature of His mission, not the full unfolding of how that salvation will happen or to whom it will ultimately extend.
It often does, but claiming it always refers to ethnic Israel is a stretch. Lexical precedent doesn't control referential scope when the author himself redefines the covenant category in his own narrative. What matters is how Matthew uses the term in context, and the theological implications (like those mentioned above) of reading it ethnically in Matthew 1:21 are disastrous.
A stretch? Ok, where do "His people, My people, His own" in the Gospels refer to someone else than the covenant people of Israel?
Matthew himself broadens the covenant category to include Gentiles and excludes unbelieving Jews (8:11-12; 12:48-50). John does the same: Jesus' "own" (τὰ ἐμά) are not limited to Israel, for He calls sheep "not of this fold" (10:14-16). Even John 1:11-12, which you cited, makes the point explicit: "His own" rejected Him, but whoever received Him, Jew or Gentile, became God's true children. Yes, "His own" refers to Jews there, but the point of the text is to redefine that. The whole point is that the true people of God is not defined ethnically.
Yes, Matthew broadens the catergory to include Gentiles, that is true, still the specific phrases "His people, My people, His own" always refer to the people of Israel. The expansion doesn’t change that fact.
Luke 2:31-32, which you also cited, likewise frames Israel's glory in the inclusion of the Gentiles. The Savior from Israel brings salvation "for all peoples." The covenant community, therefore, is not defined by national boundaries but by redemptive union with Christ. Yes, "His people" clearly refers to Israel there, but again the point is that the true covenant community is defined beyond national bounds.
Yes, the true covenant community is beyond national bounds. But it all starts with the nation of Israel as the reference point. Salvation comes from Israel, the covenant people, and only then flows to the nations.
You worship what you do not know; we worship what we know, for salvation is from the Jews.
— John 4:22
Again, the critical issue is usage in context, not default semantics. Reading "His people" in Matt. 1:21 as merely "the Jewish nation" collapses the verse into either (1) a failed national redemption or (2) universal Jewish salvation, both of which contradict Matthew's entire theological purpose.
The verse defines the nature of the salvation (from sins) and the certainty of its fulfillment. It's not a declaration of which individuals will receive it. So it neither collapases into faild national redemption or universal salvation. It simply shows God starts with the nation of Israel and for then later expand to the Gentiles.
Yes, Matthew was written for a largely Jewish audience, but that fact does not tell us what "His people" means here. Authorial audience and referential scope are not the same thing. Matthew's Jewish readers were precisely the ones who needed to see that covenant membership is no longer defined ethnically but Christologically.
Hence, the "most Jewish" Gospel is also the one that most clearly dismantles Jewish exclusivism. From the Magi (Gentiles) in chapter 2, to the centurion's faith in chapter 8, to the Great Commission in chapter 28, Matthew's message is precisely that the promised Messiah of Israel brings salvation to all nations.
But the fact that it was written for Jews helps to explain why Matthew in verse 1:21 shows Jesus as the Savior of the covenant people of Israel as the starting point of God’s redemptive plan.