I've answered; you're not responding to what I answered. The issue isn't what the
name means in isolation. The issue is how the angel explains the name:
"You shall call His name Jesus, for he will save His people from their sins"
The future indicative σώσει is declarative and effectual. It is not probabilistic, partial, or tentative. Whoever falls under "His people" is
guaranteed salvation. You're trying to separate the
kind of salvation from its
scope, but nothing in the text allows that. The angel's words present a definitive promise.
Again, γὰρ σώσει defines the essence and scope of His salvific mission. The angel's explanation of the
name is itself a complete statement of the mission.
You're not understanding what you're quoting. The plural αὐτῶν refers to the
sins of the group, not the people themselves. Notice what you quoted: "
The “sins of the people” are considered collectively." (My emphasis)
So you're conflating two different elements of the Greek pointed out in what you yourself quoted. The corporate plural is in reference to
sins, not to the
scope of the saved. The future indicative σώσει guarantees that
all individuals encompassed by "His people" are saved, not merely that the group as a collective survives in some abstract sense. The grammar does not allow partial fulfillment here. The corporate plural of
the sins only tells us how the sins are counted; it does
not redefine the scope of the salvation promised.
As I already argued, what is relevant is how the author himself uses the language in context. And in Matt. 1:21, it is defined by redemptive belonging, not ethnicity.
Again, already answered. You are still making an unwarranted distinction between
lexical precedent and
authorial redefinition. It does not matter how the specific phrase is used in other contexts; what matters is how it is used
here. Even if the phrase
historically refers to Israel, that does not determine what Matthews means in context. Matt. 1:21 defines the referent by the nature of the salvation promised. The angel promises redemptive salvation from sin, not national deliverance. You've conceded that much, but that concession eliminates an ethnic reading. Once the salvation is spiritual and effectual, the referent cannot remain merely national. A nation can experience political or covenantal privilege, but it cannot, as a collective entity, be forgiven of sin apart from the individuals who compose it.
In other words, even if you view Matt. 1:21 as a partial disclosure of Jesus' mission, the
kind of salvation described necessarily individualizes the referent. A corporate, ethnic category simply cannot receive
forgiveness from sin in the sense Matthew uses here. Only those personally redeemed can fulfill that description. Hence, "His people" must refer to the redeemed community, not the Jewish nation as such.
Paul explicitly defines "Israel" not in ethnic but in redemptive terms ("not all who are descended from Israel belong to Israel" - Rom. 9:6).