Mat 5:19 Whoever therefore breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches men so, shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
The context of what laws Christ is referring to is established in v17, saying "the law and the prophets," which is an all-inclusive term rather than one that isolates a subset. In this context (same verse), Christ says "I have not come to abolish them [the law and the prophets] but to fulfill them [the law and the prophets]" How we understand Christ having fulfilled a specific subset of laws, like circumcision or the sacrifice, should extend to the whole as is the context.
This also applies to how we understand "whoever breaks one of the least of these commandments..." as it applies to the context of the law and the prophets, not a unique subset. So how we understand us not breaking circumcision or not breaking the sacrifice can be applied to the entire law rather than a segregated portion of it, which is never taught.
By also using "the least" reference, Christ is also levelling our qualitative judgments of law and instead he says breaking any of them is the same as breaking all of them or the same as breaking unique subset that we deem as better or arbitrarily call moral over the rest. So whatever we remove from the equation, Christ is pulling it back in saying they are all treated qualitatively the same regardless of our superficial labels we may give them (sacrafical, ceremonial, moral, etc...). He is not dividing law, he is ensuring they are viewed as a whole, rejecting any idea we may have to separate them.
The commandments Jesus is referring to is directly from the Ten Commandments and quotes two as the whole law He is referring, as they always came in a unit of Ten according to God. Deut4:13 Exo34:28 breaking one we break them all even in the NC James2:10-11
Christ does quote from 10 but in a diminutive way, "You have heard that it was said to those of old" then goes on telling us a better way. So he tells us an older way, then shows us a better way, that better way is uniquely from Christ saying "But I say..." this creates a contrast between the ways of the old (the law) with the ways of Christ, showing Christ's way is better. Better than what? Better than the law.
Christ also quotes outside the law with the "eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth" and in like manner shows us a better way (again, diminutively referencing to the law portion or "way of old". So this does not agree with the logic that Christ is isolating and elevating a subset (the 10), but rather whatever he is referring to, must also include the "eye for an eye" rule and he is also not elevating but demoting. What he shows is his way is better so it seems a moot point what he is trying to deemphasize since his gaze is on his ways not the old ways. if you study the origins of these laws Christ is not referencing the 10 but instead the covenant relationship established under Moses.
The 10 commandments were first given in Ex 20. this is before Moses climbed the mountain and before they were etched in stone (then the tablets were destroyed) and etched in stone again. Moses climbs the mountain in Ex 24 but starting at Ex 20 there are numerous laws delivered as a whole with the 10 not separate to them. The 10 kick it off in Ex 20 and immediately following in Ex 21 speaks of the "eye for the eye" rule (with specific examples of what to do when you take someone's eye or tooth). This is all in the same event; there is no break in the event and what this event describes is the covenant relationship established under Moses's leadership, often called the Mosaic covenant.
"Mosaic" or "of Moses" is a theological term that does not mean Moses owns it or authored the laws; it a reference to time and place of when the covenant was formed. The covenant has multiple events where Israel affirms it and this is such an event, but these events are not there to segment the law, it is a constant reminder and a type of phased unpacking of the covenant relationship, but it is all the same covenant relationship. They are all from God, and all part of the same covenant. Ex 24 opens with all the elders gathered, and Moses wrote all the words of the Lord down (from Ex 20-23, including the 10 and the "eye for an eye" rule and many others) then a blood covenant was established under these laws. Then, Moses was invited up to the mountain where the tablets were given to him later on.
So what is Christ contrasting diminutively with his own words? He is contrasting the covenant established under Moses which includes the 10 but is not limited to the 10, and his reference is diminutive so his focus is not fixed on the diminutive part but rather the better way which is a direct contrast to this older system. This passage cannot be used to isolate and elevate the 10 in anyway, two things it definitely does establish (as it pertains to the 10), is that the 10 is part of greater grouping/covenant of laws/commandments (not isolated) and is deemphasized (Christ shows us a better way) over Christ's way. This is the exact opposite point you seem to be trying to make which questions your ability to understand the passage without this extreme bias since it is written so plainly in the text.