Gal 2:16 and Rom 2:13 : Works of the Law Justifies or not?
- By RandyPNW
- General Theology
- 75 Replies
You said, "The major difference between the old and new covenants is that, in the new, man is reconciled with God before anything else- establishing a vital connection between us and the Vine."Hmm...appears to be a failure to communicate here. I'm not sure you really understand-what I said. But I certainly have no idea what you're meaning to say above. I mean, of course, "Eternal Life and God's Eternal Nature were there from the beginning". And I didn't say otherwise. Maybe you could clarify a bit.
You said, "Jesus came in the fullness of time to give the full-true revelation of God’s nature-and of His will for man: for us to ultimately live in eternal bliss with Him."
We were discussing the *differences* between the Old and New Covenants. From your statements above it sounded as if in the Old Covenant Israel was as yet not reconciled with God and did not have a vital connection with God, spiritually?
And the implication of your statement is that before the New Covenant was established by Jesus there was not a "full-true revelation of God's nature and will for Man?" Really?
And so, I challenged that statement by declaring that the Old Covenant did have a true revelation of God's nature. The "I Am" statement to Moses revealed God's "true revelation." And the God of Israel under the Old Covenant was, in fact, a true revelation of God's Nature.
So maybe you're just saying that Jesus "filled in some of the blanks" not yet known about God's plan of Salvation, even though God's Nature was indeed fully known? Maybe you will acknowledge that the Law of Moses had provided a measure of "reconciliation" with God until it was sealed in Christ's blood?
After all, God continued to have fellowship with Adam and Eve, indicated by His giving them animal clothing. That in itself was a form of "reconciliation" and continuing vital links with God!
All that the Law of Moses provided Israel was given to reconcile them to Himself, if only on a temporary basis. And it did create a vital, spiritual link between Israel and Himself.
The necessary "final atonement of Christ" was future at that point, but did not mean that the Law had no value up until that point.
I hope you understand what I'm saying?
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