The "as many as were ordained to eternal life believed" makes sense when you consider it was the great commission to spread the gospel and save as many as possible. Notice, "unto the ends of the earth;" the whole world.
Given verse 47, there is no other way to interpret the verse but appointment unto salvation for all.
You're still not addressing what is explicitly stated in verse 48. You're collapsing the
scope of the mission with the
identity of those saved. Verse 47 states the
geographical extent of the apostolic commission. Verse 48 states the
particularity of the effect. "To the ends of the earth" tells us where the gospel is to be preached, not who will infallibly believe it. Verse 48 does tell us who will infallibly believe it. Luke's syntax is painfully clear:
ἐπίστευσαν ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον
This identifies
the believers as
the ones who had been appointed. It does not say "all were appointed." It says the ones
who were appointed, believed.
1. God is not a respecter of persons.
In the very book of Acts, just two chapters before, Peter says that God is not a respecter of persons. James says that
respecting persons is a sin. God's very character is being called into question: For God would be sinning if He were a respecter of persons, appointing some to belief, but others not. Indeed this cannot be the case and is not the case.
Acts 10:34-35 Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him.
James 2:9 But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.
"God is not a respecter of persons" (προσωπολήμπτης) does not mean "God treats all people identically." προσωπολήμπτης means showing favoritism (unjustly) based on external human qualities. Sovereign mercy is not an example of God showing
partiality based on external factors (ethnicity, social standing, wealth, etc.). Quite the opposite, in fact. Election is not grounded in anything
in the person.
2. The scope of the plan of salvation is global.
Let's revisit
John 3:16-17 again.
John 3:16 For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.
Salvation is available to all. The world; the inhabitants of the earth, men, the human family. Whosoever; all men, every man.
Is this supposed to be a response? Strong's agrees with what I said on κόσμος. You cherry-picked a select portion of the semantic range of that word, and had no comment to offer regarding John's specific use of it.
"Whosoever" is not simply a translation of πᾶς (pas, "all") by itself. It translates the substantive use of πᾶς with the participle ὁ πιστεύων ("the one believing"). "Whosoever believes" literally means "all
who believe." The construction inherently qualifies the scope. It refers to
those who do believe, not to everyone indiscriminately, nor does it imply that anyone can believe at will. It is a descriptive statement of the saved, not a prescriptive statement about human ability.
3. Free will belief.
Paul explains how belief works.
Romans 10:10-13 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved.
No, there is nothing here about the
cause that brings a person to faith. Paul is describing
the manner in which salvation is expressed. We're not debating manner. We're debating origin.
4. Unbelief.
Satan is the cause of unbelief, not God.
No one has said or implied that God causes unbelief.
Respectfully, I don't need to give time to the remainder of your comments. The points you raise I have largely already responded to, and they still do not address what is explicitly stated in Acts 13:48. Surely it isn't your point to argue that Scripture contradicts itself? If you think other texts contradict what has been argued concerning Acts 13:48, then you still need to address Acts 13:48 explicitly and show how its grammar is consistent with those other texts.