LOL. That's the last question you should ever ask me. I believe I make my points very clear and I don't play games.
I've not argued that the text says "they were appointed to believe." They were appointed to eternal life.
I'm not talking about you making a claim about what the text says. Clearly, everyone can see that the text doesn't explicitly say that they were appointed to believe. Yet, you do believe that they were appointed to believe because you believe that those who are appointed to eternal life are also appointed to believe. That is what I'm addressing, which is what I believe to be your false interpretation of Acts 13:48.
But their act of belief flows from that prior divine appointment, not the other way around.
And there it is Why do you act as if you don't understand my point? What I'm addressing is what you said right here. I disagree completely with your statement here.
You can't dispute that grammatically.
LOL. Yes, I can and I have. Don't try to tell me what I can or can't do.
Your best bet for defending your view would be to argue for the middle reading of τεταγμένοι, not a reversal of the syntax.
I'm arguing using scripture to interpret scripture. I don't need to buy into your "middle reading" nonsense. Your interpretation of Acts 13:48 contradicts a lot of other scripture. Does that matter to you or do you think it's acceptable to interpret a verse in isolation from the rest of scripture?
This comment of yours was offered in response to a straightforward grammatical analysis of Acts 13:48, not a theological argument. Labeling the grammar as "wrong" or saying it "doesn't line up with Scripture" tacitly concedes that your theology, rather than the text itself, is your standard of truth. Luke's syntax is painfully clear: the entire relative clause ὅσοι ἦσαν τεταγμένοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον ("as many as had been appointed to eternal life") functions as a single substantival unit and occupies the subject position of ἐπίστευσαν ("believed"). It cannot mean "those who believed were appointed." That reading is grammatically indefensible, as it would require ἐπίστευσαν to lie within the relative clause as its predicate, reversing the syntactic relationship. Luke wrote the opposite: the appointed ones [subject] believe [predicate]. The Greek allows no other reading.
Whatever your view of the rest of Scripture, it must be reconciled with the grammar Luke actually wrote. If it cannot, then it is your interpretation, not my presentation of the syntax, that produces the apparent contradiction.
You really need to humble yourself. You have deluded yourself into thinking that you are the ultimate Greek grammar expert of the entire world. You're making me nauseous here with your boring nonsense. I don't care what you say, the verse is up for interpretation and the meaning of it is not based on our understanding of the Greek grammar. And I certainly don't trust that your understanding of that is correct, anyway, since you are clearly very doctrinally biased. There is nothing in the text to demand that those who were appointed to eternal life were also appointed to believe by God because of being appointed by God to eternal life. If you actually read ALL of scripture, it should be clear that God wants all people to be saved and wants all people to choose to repent and believe or not. You need to question yourself and your understanding of the grammar and of scripture itself when you interpretation of any given verse or passages contradicts many other verses or passages.
The irony is hard to miss. You ask whether it matters to me not to contradict other Scripture, yet you dismiss the plain grammar of the verse because it contradicts your interpretation of other passages. Which is more likely at fault: Luke's Greek, or your reading of the rest of the Bible?
Your doctrine is VERY CLEARLY false, so the way you're talking here means nothing to me. I know the truth and your doctrine is not the truth. I can prove that with ALL of scripture. We can't just base everyone on one verse. But, our interpretation of that verse needs to be able to be reconciled with all of scripture and you cannot do that with your interpretation of Acts 13:48. No amount of talk about the Greek grammar can change that.
I am letting Luke speak for himself; you are imposing your system over his syntax. If anyone is forcing a contradiction here, it is not me.
Wrong. Your argument is not convincing even a tiny bit to me even though I know you have convinced yourself because of what you want to believe.
The issue isn't whether humans make choices. We obviously do. The question is why some believe while others do not.
And your answer doesn't line up with the scriptures which teach that God graciously offers salvation to all people, implying that all people are capable of accepting it, or else He would not offer it or His offer would not be genuine.