Not strictly on grammar alone. I focused on grammar because
1 John 5:1 is a straightforward example of how the perfect tense is typically used with present participles, especially in 1 John. The perfect passive ("has been born of God") describes a completed ontological event with ongoing effects. It's natural to use a present participle ("believes") to describe those present effects. That's the relationship of these verb forms in the vast majority of instances. That doesn't mean the verb forms themselves
always indicate that relationship (they don't). But this is a pretty straightforward statement, so the grammar alone should suffice to make the point. If not, the broader context of 1 John reinforces it. This verse reflects a pattern with how John uses γεγέννηται in this letter (e.g.,
1 John 2:29;
4:7). He
intends the perfect γεγέννηται to be understood as an ontological grounds of whatever present participial action he pairs with it. Notice the pattern:
...πᾶς
ὁ ποιῶν τὴν δικαιοσύνην ἐξ αὐτοῦ
γεγέννηται (
1 John 2:29, "everyone who practices righteousness has been born of him")
...πᾶς
ὁ ἀγαπῶν ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ
γεγέννηται... (
1 John 4:7, "everyone who loves has been born of God")
Πᾶς
ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστιν ὁ Χριστὸς ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ
γεγέννηται (
1 John 5:1, "everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God")
These are clear grammatical parallels; John is making a point here. So however we interpret one, we must be consistent with interpreting the others. Thus, if
1 John 5:1 is read as faith preceding (or having no logical relationship to) regeneration, consistency demands the same understanding with regards to practicing righteousness and godly love. What then is the purpose of regeneration at all, if the sinner is capable of engaging in these activities
prior to regeneration?
So it's not enough to point to "present participle + a perfect" and claim parity between
1 John 5:1 and another verse. That was not my intended argument, and I realize in hindsight it was a mistake not to be clearer on that in the OP.
1 John 5:1 and
5:10 perform different rhetorical functions, so the same forms function differently.
Briefly:
- 1 John 5:1 uses a perfect passive to name a completed, ontological event, and a substantival present participle to describe the ongoing condition that issues from that event. That's the standard use of the perfect + present participle in the vast majority of cases, and clearly seems to be John's intended use of γεγέννηται throughout the letter.
- 1 John 5:10 contrasts two present states (ὁ πιστεύων and ὁ μὴ πιστεύων, "believing" and "not believing") and then treats a cluster of perfects as completed acts or testimonies whose consequences follow. Critically, the ὅτι clause ("because he has not believed...") explains why the unbeliever is said to have "made God a liar" (πεποίηκεν). The perfects describe completed acts with present consequence (God's testimony given; the person's rejection).
Put another way: in 5:10 the participles set up the contrast (current believer vs. current non-believer); the perfects then state the results or evidences that attend those states. In 5:1 the perfect states the prior ontological reality that makes the present participial state intelligible. In 5:10, the ὅτι clause is the interpretive key. It exposes the perfects as explanatory/consequential, not as the kind of ontological ground that γεγέννηται functions as in 5:1.
(My emphasis added.) I'm not convinced you understand the difference between the terms
logical and
temporal, as I've made this distinction in no fewer than four of my replies to you (not to mention the OP itself), and you're still conflating the two. A
temporal order concerns
when events occur in time; a
logical order concerns what
necessarily gives rise to what. You can have two events occur
simultaneously in time, and there still be
logical order between them. For instance, the sun doesn't shine first and then later produce light (
temporal sequence); light proceeds from it by
necessity. The sun shining, and the ground being illuminated, are
simultaneous actions, but that doesn't mean the
logical order can be reversed from "the ground is illuminated
because the sun shines," to "the sun shines
because the ground is illuminated."
So I have no issue with saying regeneration can occur
simultaneously with another action
. The issue I am concerned with is the
logical relationship between regeneration and faith. Is my room illuminated
because the light switch was flipped (do I believe
because God has regenerated me), or was the light switch flipped
because my room is illuminated (did God regenerate me
because I believe)? The actions of flipping the switch and the room being illuminated can be instantaneous as I experience them, but that doesn't speak to the nature of the
logical relationship between them.