Why the weekly Sabbath (Saturday) is the Lord's Day, in the Bible

guevaraj

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You are using Roman time instead of Biblical time, the Sabbath ends t sunset and the first day of the week starts at the same sunset; in the morning Jesus was already gone. In the Bible the Sabbath is never referred to as the Lord's day.
Brother, the days of the week during the 40 years in the desert were from morning to morning, as revealed in the following passage where they are given two portions of Manna on the previous day because there will be no Manna tomorrow. Importantly, the bad news that there will be no quail tomorrow if the next day begins in the "evening" is not mentioned, because they will eat quail in the "evening" before Manna is the first thing they will not have the next day. The quail not mentioned clearly shows the day begins in the morning.

On the sixth day, they gathered twice as much as usual—four quarts for each person instead of two. Then all the leaders of the community came and asked Moses for an explanation. He told them, “This is what the LORD commanded: Tomorrow will be a day of complete rest, a holy Sabbath day set apart for the LORD. So bake or boil as much as you want today, and set aside what is left for tomorrow.” So they put some aside until morning, just as Moses had commanded. And in the morning the leftover food was wholesome and good, without maggots or odor. Moses said, “Eat this food today, for today is a Sabbath day dedicated to the LORD. There will be no food on the ground today. (Exodus 16:22-25 NLT)​


United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge
 
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sparow

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Brother, the days of the week during the 40 years in the desert were from morning to morning, as revealed in the following passage where they are given two portions of Manna on the previous day because there will be no Manna tomorrow. Importantly, the bad news that there will be no quail tomorrow if the next day begins in the "evening" is not mentioned, because they will eat quail in the "evening" before Manna is the first thing they will not have the next day. The quail not mentioned clearly shows the day begins in the morning.

On the sixth day, they gathered twice as much as usual—four quarts for each person instead of two. Then all the leaders of the community came and asked Moses for an explanation. He told them, “This is what the LORD commanded: Tomorrow will be a day of complete rest, a holy Sabbath day set apart for the LORD. So bake or boil as much as you want today, and set aside what is left for tomorrow.” So they put some aside until morning, just as Moses had commanded. And in the morning the leftover food was wholesome and good, without maggots or odor. Moses said, “Eat this food today, for today is a Sabbath day dedicated to the LORD. There will be no food on the ground today. (Exodus 16:22-25 NLT)​


United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge
I presume you are joking or do not know what serious is, there is nothing in the verses you quote that touch on when a day starts and ends, every day has a morning, midday, and afternoon, morning is when they had breakfast, the first meal of the day regardless of when the day starts.

In verse Exodus 16:23, Tomorrow is the rest of the Holly Sabbath unto the Lord ...... if this was said five seconds before sundown it would mean they, not God, was calling Saturday the Sabbath, if it was said five seconds after sundown it would mean they not God were calling Sunday the Sabath. What has surprised me is that the manna had to be cooked.

It is obvious that you are concocting excuses for not keeping the commandments of God.
 
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guevaraj

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if this was said five seconds before sundown it would mean they, not God, was calling Saturday the Sabbath, if it was said five seconds after sundown it would mean they not God were calling Sunday the Sabath.
Brother, it is not Moses who is speaking about the day with words like "tomorrow" and "today" but it is God who is speaking through Moses, as Moses tells us with the following statement: "This is what the LORD commanded". God is revealing when the day begins, and it is not in the "evening" with quail but in the "morning" with Manna.

On the sixth day, they gathered twice as much as usual—four quarts for each person instead of two. Then all the leaders of the community came and asked Moses for an explanation. He told them, “This is what the LORD commanded: Tomorrow will be a day of complete rest, a holy Sabbath day set apart for the LORD. So bake or boil as much as you want today, and set aside what is left for tomorrow.” So they put some aside until morning, just as Moses had commanded. And in the morning the leftover food was wholesome and good, without maggots or odor. Moses said, “Eat this food today, for today is a Sabbath day dedicated to the LORD. There will be no food on the ground today. (Exodus 16:22-25 NLT)​


United in our hope for the soon return of Jesus, Jorge
 
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sparow

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In the Bible the weekly Sabbath is Saturday - the 7th day of the week. From Friday Evening to Saturday evening.

So it is no wonder that when the gospels say that Jesus was raised on the first day of the week - everyone knows that this means our Sunday. This is easy and obvious.

The Catholic Church document "the Faith Explained" asks the question about "changing the LORD's day from Saturday to Sunday" like this -

1965 -- first published 1959 (from "The Faith Explained" by Leo Trese page 243)

"we know that in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it...'remember to keep holy the Sabbath day.. the early Christian church determined as the Lord's day the first day of the week. That the church had the right to make such a law is evident...The reason for changing the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday lies in the fact that to the Christian church the first day of the week had been made double holy...​
nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday..that is why we find so illogical the attitude of many non-Catholic who say they will believe nothing unless they can find it in the bible and yet will continue to keep Sunday as the Lord's day on the say-so of the Catholic church"

I fully agree with - "in the O.T it was the seventh day of the week - the Sabbath day- which was observed as the Lord's day. that was the law as God gave it."

I fully agree with - "nothing is said in the bible about the change of the Lord's day from Saturday to Sunday"

Some will say "I don't care what the Catholic position is" but this idea of a "Change" for the Bible Sabbath from Saturday (the 7th day) to the first day is also mentioned in the Baptist Confession of Faith and in other denominational documents across the board.

Why then are they so clear on the fact that the Sabbath is the Lord's Day - and that a change was made via some sort of tradition - but not mentioned in the Bible.?

Is 58:13
“If you turn away your foot from the Sabbath,
From doing your pleasure on My holy day,
And call the Sabbath a delight,
The holy day of the Lord honorable,
And shall honor Him, not doing your own ways,
Nor finding your own pleasure,
Nor speaking your own words,

Mark 2:27 "The Son of man is LORD of the Sabbath"

Is 66:23 says that for all eternity after the cross and in the New Earth - "From Sabbath to Sabbath shall ALL mankind come before Me to worship"

So no wonder in Acts 18:4 EVERY Sabbath they gather for gospel preaching in the synagogue - as Paul preached to both gentiles and Jews
No wonder in Acts 13 the GENTILES ask for MORE Gospel preaching to be scheduled for "The NEXT Sabbath" and then the next Sabbath almost the entire town shows up to hear it.

All Bible scholars know the following -
1. There is no text saying 'the first day of the week is the Lord's day"
2. There is no text saying 'the first day of the week is the holy day of the Lord"
3. There is no text saying 'the first day of the week is My holy day"
4. There is no text saying "every week day one they gathered for gospel preaching"
5. There is no text saying "the Son of Man is LORD of week day 1"
6. There is no text saying "week day one is now the Sabbath of the LORD thy God" or "is now the Lord's day"
7. There is no text says "the gentiles asked that more Gospel preaching be given to them - on the next week day 1"

Some will say "well that just adds more weight to the Catholic Document quoted above stating that there is nothing in the Bible on that point". And of course that is true it does add weight to that part of their statement.

==========================================

"They [the Catholics] allege the Sabbath changed into Sunday, the Lord's day, contrary to the Decalogue, as it appears, neither is there any example more boasted of than the changing of the Sabbath day. Great, say they, is the power and authority of the church, since it dispensed with one of the Ten Commandments."

—Augsburg Confession of Faith, Art. 28, par. 9.


"They [Roman Catholics] allege the change of the Sabbath into the Lord's day, as it seemeth, to the Decalogue [the ten commandments]; and they have no example more in their mouths than they change of the Sabbath. They will needs have the Church's power to be very great, because it hath dispensed with the precept of the Decalogue."

—The Augsburg Confession, 1530 A.D. (Lutheran), part 2, art 7, in Philip Schaff, the Creeds of Christiandom, 4th Edition, vol 3, p64 [this important statement was made by the Lutherans and written by Melanchthon, only thirteen years after Luther nailed his theses to the door and began the Reformation].
I have sent off a question to ask the Rabbi, it will take a couple of days to get a reply. I don't think Jews have ever called the Sabbath the Lord's Day, the Lord's Day is what John describes in/by the book of revelation.
 
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BobRyan

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I have sent off a question to ask the Rabbi, it will take a couple of days to get a reply. I don't think Jews have ever called the Sabbath the Lord's Day, the Lord's Day is what John describes in/by the book of revelation.
Is 58:13 it is called "The Holy Day of the Lord"

Mark 2:27 "the Son of man is LORD of the Sabbath"

By contrast: There is not one text of scripture calling week-day-1 Sabbath or calling it "The Lord's Day"

Both Saturday and Sunday keeping denominations admit that the Sabbath was the Lord's Day in the OT - that includes Catholics in the book "The Faith Explained" and in may other instances.
 
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sparow

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Is 58:13 it is called "The Holy Day of the Lord"

Mark 2:27 "the Son of man is LORD of the Sabbath"

By contrast: There is not one text of scripture calling week-day-1 Sabbath or calling it "The Lord's Day"

Both Saturday and Sunday keeping denominations admit that the Sabbath was the Lord's Day in the OT - that includes Catholics in the book "The Faith Explained" and in may other instances.

I may have managed to change the topic. I can allow that I may be wrong, but I am not aware that that the Sabbath is ever referred to as the Lord's Day in scripture, sometimes there are implication that the day belongs to the creator, sometimes it belongs to the Messiah and sometimes it belongs to man; bit I do not see ownership as the issue.

If someone was having a conversation about the Sabbath and said, ”The seventh day is the Lord's Day”, this could be like saying, “The Tyre is the car's Tyre.” But if they said, “Sunday is the Lord's Day”, then I would reply, “which Pagan God are you calling Lord, do you call it Jesus?”

I believe it is technically incorrect to call the Seventh day, The Lord's day, (Day of The Lord) because the term or concept is already taken; the day of blessing and cursing, the day of God's wrath, the day that God sets before man life or death, the Book of Revelation, Joel 2:1-2, Amos 5:18.

Calling the Sabbath the Lord's Day misdirects from the Great and Terrible Day of The Lord, and therefore sinister.
 
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BobRyan

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I may have managed to change the topic. I can allow that I may be wrong, but I am not aware that that the Sabbath is ever referred to as the Lord's Day in scripture, sometimes there are implication that the day belongs to the creator
We have the term "Lord's Day" in Rev 1
We have "The Son of Man is LORD of the Sabbath" in Mark 2
We have "the Sabbath - the Holy Day of the LORD" in Is 58:13

But to your point - we don't have any other text that speaks to the Rev 1 term.
I believe it is technically incorrect to call the Seventh day, The Lord's day, (Day of The Lord) because the term or concept is already taken
So then do you view Is 58:13 as a mistake?
13 “If, because of the Sabbath, you restrain your foot​
From doing as you wish on My holy day,​
And call the Sabbath a pleasure, and the holy day of the Lord honorable,​
And honor it, desisting from your own ways,​
From seeking your own pleasure​
And speaking your own word,​

That Is 58:13 text may help explain why there is such agreement between Sabbath keeping and non-Sabbath keeping scholarship that "The Lord's day" in the Bible - in the OT was the 7th day Sabbath up until the cross (At which point the two groups differ in their views).
; the day of blessing and cursing, the day of God's wrath
I agree that outside of the concept of "my holy day" and "the holy day of the lord" there is also the day of God's wrath and vengeance (a future event) called "The day of the Lord"

3 Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers will come with their mocking, following after their own lusts, 4 and saying, “Where is the promise of His coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue just as they were from the beginning of creation.”...
10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.
 
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sparow

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We have the term "Lord's Day" in Rev 1
We have "The Son of Man is LORD of the Sabbath" in Mark 2
We have "the Sabbath - the Holy Day of the LORD" in Is 58:13

But to your point - we don't have any other text that speaks to the Rev 1 term.

So then do you view Is 58:13 as a mistake?
13 “If, because of the Sabbath, you restrain your foot​
From doing as you wish on My holy day,​
And call the Sabbath a pleasure, and the holy day of the Lord honorable,​
And honor it, desisting from your own ways,​
From seeking your own pleasure​
And speaking your own word,​

That Is 58:13 text may help explain why there is such agreement between Sabbath keeping and non-Sabbath keeping scholarship that "The Lord's day" in the Bible - in the OT was the 7th day Sabbath up until the cross (At which point the two groups differ in their views).

I agree that outside of the concept of "my holy day" and "the holy day of the lord" there is also the day of God's wrath and vengeance (a future event) called "The day of the Lord"

3 Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers will come with their mocking, following after their own lusts, 4 and saying, “Where is the promise of His coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue just as they were from the beginning of creation.”...
10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.

Mark 2 and Isa 58:13 refer to the Sabbath, and the Sabbath is stated, but “My Holy Day “, is a description of the Sabbath, not a title. In Rev 1:10, The Lord's Day is a title.; looking at the Greek it reads, I was in the spirit on (something that belongs to God) day. If there was something special about having a vision on the Sabbath, OK, but I am not aware that there is something special about having a vision on the Sabbath, or that the Sabbath is when prophets have their visions.


There is every reason to believe that John was identifying the “Day of the Lord”, of which the book of Revelation describes. And not acknowledging that is to short change God, and pairs with abrogating the Law.
 
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sparow

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We have the term "Lord's Day" in Rev 1
We have "The Son of Man is LORD of the Sabbath" in Mark 2
We have "the Sabbath - the Holy Day of the LORD" in Is 58:13

But to your point - we don't have any other text that speaks to the Rev 1 term.

So then do you view Is 58:13 as a mistake?
13 “If, because of the Sabbath, you restrain your foot​
From doing as you wish on My holy day,​
And call the Sabbath a pleasure, and the holy day of the Lord honorable,​
And honor it, desisting from your own ways,​
From seeking your own pleasure​
And speaking your own word,​

That Is 58:13 text may help explain why there is such agreement between Sabbath keeping and non-Sabbath keeping scholarship that "The Lord's day" in the Bible - in the OT was the 7th day Sabbath up until the cross (At which point the two groups differ in their views).

I agree that outside of the concept of "my holy day" and "the holy day of the lord" there is also the day of God's wrath and vengeance (a future event) called "The day of the Lord"

3 Know this first of all, that in the last days mockers will come with their mocking, following after their own lusts, 4 and saying, “Where is the promise of His coming? For ever since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue just as they were from the beginning of creation.”...
10 But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and its works will be burned up.
I got a reply from the Rabbi,

"I can’t tell you what the term means in the NT. To the best of my knowledge the Sabbath is not referred to as “G-d’s day,” but it is referred to (in the Torah) as “G-d’s Sabbath,” or His rest day.

When the prophets speak of “the day of G-d,” it refers to when G-d will display to the world that He is the ultimate power, and that those who have sinned will receive their retribution, and G-d will be recognized by all the world as the sole G-d and the sole power. Thus, for example, Isaiah 2 says: ‘A day for G-d of hosts is coming, for every haughty and exalted person, and for everyone that is raised up or lowly... Then the high among men will bow low, and the exalted among people will be brought down; and G-d alone will be elevated on that day.’ "
 
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BobRyan

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I got a reply from the Rabbi,

"I can’t tell you what the term means in the NT. To the best of my knowledge the Sabbath is not referred to as “G-d’s day,” but it is referred to (in the Torah) as “G-d’s Sabbath,” or His rest day.

When the prophets speak of “the day of G-d,” it refers to when G-d will display to the world that He is the ultimate power
The "day of the Lord" as an apocalyptic event in the world is discussed in 2 Peter 3 as "the coming of the Lord and as The Day of the Lord".

That is very different from the weekly Sabbath of Is 58:13 "The Holy Day of the Lord" as the text explicitly shows.

“If, because of the Sabbath, you restrain your foot
From doing as you wish on My holy day,
And call the Sabbath a pleasure, and the holy day of the Lord honorable,
And honor it, desisting from your own ways,
From seeking your own pleasure
And speaking your own word,

Only one day of the week is called
  • "The Sabbath"
  • "My Holy Day"
  • "the holy day of the Lord"
With the command to keep it holy - to hold it to be honorable

I find it curious that your source did not look at Isaiah 58:13

sparow said:

Mark 2 and Isa 58:13 refer to the Sabbath, and the Sabbath is stated

ok so we do agree on that.
 
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BobRyan

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Mark 2 and Isa 58:13 refer to the Sabbath, and the Sabbath is stated, but “My Holy Day “, is a description of the Sabbath, not a title.
The Is 58:13 text does not say "My holy day", "the Sabbath" is not "the holy day of the Lord so then not the day of the Lord" when it says "The Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath" and "the Sabbath is the holy day of the Lord", "My holy day".

So then we do have a candidate for a day of the week that fits Rev 1:10, but only one day of the week has anything like that - and apparently John's readers in Rev 1:10 knew about something that fit the description
In Rev 1:10, The Lord's Day is a title.; looking at the Greek it reads, I was in the spirit on (something that belongs to God) day.
"My holy day" looks like "something that belongs to the Lord"
"the seventh day is the Sabbath of YHWH" -- looks like something that belongs to the Lord.

Nothing like that is said for any other day of the week.
If there was something special about having a vision on the Sabbath, OK, but I am not aware that there is something special about having a vision on the Sabbath
Yet is fine for John to inform his readers of that timing fact.
There is every reason to believe that John was identifying the “Day of the Lord”, of which the book of Revelation describes.
John was pretty good about saying things like "I looked and behold I saw..." and adds something like "four beings standing around the throne" or something like "The day of the Lord" -- which would fit in with your suggestion but that is most certainly not what we see in Rev 1:10
And not acknowledging that is to short change God, and pairs with abrogating the Law.
quite a stretch

Regarding Rev 1:10
"Some have suggested this phrase refers to ‘the Day of the Lord,’ but the context doesn’t support that interpretation, and the grammatical form of the word ‘Lord’ is adjectival, thus ‘the Lord’s day.’”


In Revelation 1:10, the phrase used is κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ, and in that case κυριακῇ is in the dative case and is being used as an adjective. This doesn't rule out the possibility of it referring to the same thing, but it does make it highly unlikely and puts the proof of burden on those who would claim otherwise.

Young's Literal Translation -- YLT -- 10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's-day, and I heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet, saying”
 
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BobRyan

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From: Is there significance to the variations in "day of the Lord" in Greek scripture?

Verse
Greek
Transliteration
KJV
Acts 2:20τὴν ἡμέραν κυρίουtēn hēmeran kyriouthe day of the Lord
1 Cor. 5:5τῇ ἡμέρᾳ τοῦ κυρίου ἰησοῦtē hēmera tou kyriou iēsouthe day of the Lord Jesus
2 Cor. 1:14τῇ ἡμέρᾳ τοῦ κυρίου ἰησοῦtē hēmera tou kyriou iēsouthe day of the Lord Jesus
1 Ths. 5:2ἡ ἡμέρα κυρίουhē hēmera kyriouthe day of the Lord
2 Pet. 3:10ᾗ ἡμέρα κυρίουhē hēmera kyriouthe day of the Lord
Rev. 1:10τῇ κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳtē kyriakē hēmerathe Lord's day

With the exception of Revelation 1:10, the noun "Lord" in all of the verses is in the genitive case. This is the case which puts the noun in a belonging type of relationship and typically makes it the object of the preposition "of" which is why we then see "of the Lord" in the translation. The word "the", only explicitly found in the two texts from Corinthians, gets added to the others as a requirement of English grammar, as we would not say "of Lord."

In Revelation 1:10, the word "Lord" is an adjective, not a noun, in the dative case to match the subsequent noun "day" which is also in the dative case. The dative case often indicates the indirect object of the verb (direct objects would be in the accusative case). In this verse, however, the verb is translated as an intransitive linking verb and has no object. The dative case here places it as the object of a preposition--in this case "on", as in "on the Lord's day."

=============

your comment

sparow said:

And not acknowledging that is to short change God, and pairs with abrogating the Law.

Seems to say that noticing these details in the Greek explaining why the translators render this a "Lord's day" instead of making it your suggested form "Day of the Lord", "pairs with abrogating the law". I don't understand the logic you are using to get to that extreme suggestion
 
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sparow

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The "day of the Lord" as an apocalyptic event in the world is discussed in 2 Peter 3 as "the coming of the Lord and as The Day of the Lord".

That is very different from the weekly Sabbath of Is 58:13 "The Holy Day of the Lord" as the text explicitly shows.

“If, because of the Sabbath, you restrain your foot
From doing as you wish on My holy day,
And call the Sabbath a pleasure, and the holy day of the Lord honorable,
And honor it, desisting from your own ways,
From seeking your own pleasure
And speaking your own word,

Only one day of the week is called
  • "The Sabbath"
  • "My Holy Day"
  • "the holy day of the Lord"
With the command to keep it holy - to hold it to be honorable

I find it curious that your source did not look at Isaiah 58:13



ok so we do agree on that.

I am having trouble working out where you are coming from in this discussion; you seem to be saying cucumbers are green and I am saying tomatoes are red. Then you try to produce something that is a bit of both.

Lets look at this from the perspective of a Pagan/Christian, the Lord's day is Sunday, nothing to do with the seventh day, everything to do with replacing the things of God with the things of men.


The Pagan definition of the Lord's day is:


7 Things You Should Know About the Lord’s Day (thegospelcoalition.org)


14 Bible verses about Lord's Day, The (knowing-jesus.com)


The Lord's Day is based on scripture, as is the Koran; is based on scripture good enough?

The Lord's Day is linked to the Pagan Easter. Quote, Sunday is the Lord's Day because He rose from the dead on that day. In Revelation 1:10, the apostle John writes, “I was in the spirit on the Lord's day …..” Almost all scholars agree that by “the Lord's Day,” John meant Sunday. Unquote.


What is the Difference between the Sabbath and the Lord’s Day? | Biblical Christianity (biblical-christianity.com)


I do not know when the Lord's Day came into vogue, bit I expect it to be a Roman Catholic thing, certainly after John and not what John was referring to in Rev 1:10. John would not be referring to Sunday, because the Lord's day is a concoction of men. Revelation is a description of the Day of the Lord, mentioned often in the OT, John said, “I was in the spirit on the imperial day”.


You have probably heard men say, Revelation and Daniel go together like a hand in a glove, Revelation and Isaiah go together also; Revelation is the imperial day from God's perspective, Isaiah is the imperial day from Israel's (mankind's) perspective.


Rev 1:10, the imperial day Isa 2;12, the day of the lord.. Isa 2:21 ...His majesty...

Rev 1:8, I am the beginning and the ending Isa 44:4 I the Lord, the first and with the last; I am he.

Rev 2:16, sword of his mouth Isa 11: rod of his mouth

Rev 3:8, open and no man can shut it Isa 22:22, so he can open and none shall shut

Rev 6:15, hid themselves in the rocks Isa 2:19 when He rises to shake terribly the earth

Rev 7:4, number sealed Isa 4:2,3, everyone among the living in Jerusalem

Rev 7:9,14, all nations Isa 43:11 besides me there is no Saviour

Rev 7:17, wipe away tears Isa 25:8, wipe away tears

Rev 8:7, brought low Isa 2 proud and lofty, brought low


All the way through these books are parallel


Rev18:2, there you will have no rest Isa 23:12, Babylon has fallen, Isa 34:14

Rev 17: , multitudes Isa 8:7, including the King of Assyria

Rev 22:17, let him that is athirst come Isa 55:1, let everyone that thirsteth, come
 
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sparow

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The Is 58:13 text does not say "My holy day", "the Sabbath" is not "the holy day of the Lord so then not the day of the Lord" when it says "The Son of Man is Lord of the Sabbath" and "the Sabbath is the holy day of the Lord", "My holy day".

So then we do have a candidate for a day of the week that fits Rev 1:10, but only one day of the week has anything like that - and apparently John's readers in Rev 1:10 knew about something that fit the description

"My holy day" looks like "something that belongs to the Lord"
"the seventh day is the Sabbath of YHWH" -- looks like something that belongs to the Lord.

Nothing like that is said for any other day of the week.

Yet is fine for John to inform his readers of that timing fact.

John was pretty good about saying things like "I looked and behold I saw..." and adds something like "four beings standing around the throne" or something like "The day of the Lord" -- which would fit in with your suggestion but that is most certainly not what we see in Rev 1:10

quite a stretch

Regarding Rev 1:10
"Some have suggested this phrase refers to ‘the Day of the Lord,’ but the context doesn’t support that interpretation, and the grammatical form of the word ‘Lord’ is adjectival, thus ‘the Lord’s day.’”


In Revelation 1:10, the phrase used is κυριακῇ ἡμέρᾳ, and in that case κυριακῇ is in the dative case and is being used as an adjective. This doesn't rule out the possibility of it referring to the same thing, but it does make it highly unlikely and puts the proof of burden on those who would claim otherwise.

Young's Literal Translation -- YLT -- 10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's-day, and I heard behind me a great voice, as of a trumpet, saying”
The word for Sabbath does not seem to appear in Revelation anywhere.
 
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sparow

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I am having trouble working out where you are coming from in this discussion; you seem to be saying cucumbers are green and I am saying tomatoes are red. Then you try to produce something that is a bit of both.

Lets look at this from the perspective of a Pagan/Christian, the Lord's day is Sunday, nothing to do with the seventh day, everything to do with replacing the things of God with the things of men.


The Pagan definition of the Lord's day is:


7 Things You Should Know About the Lord’s Day (thegospelcoalition.org)


14 Bible verses about Lord's Day, The (knowing-jesus.com)


The Lord's Day is based on scripture, as is the Koran; is based on scripture good enough?

The Lord's Day is linked to the Pagan Easter. Quote, Sunday is the Lord's Day because He rose from the dead on that day. In Revelation 1:10, the apostle John writes, “I was in the spirit on the Lord's day …..” Almost all scholars agree that by “the Lord's Day,” John meant Sunday. Unquote.


What is the Difference between the Sabbath and the Lord’s Day? | Biblical Christianity (biblical-christianity.com)


I do not know when the Lord's Day came into vogue, bit I expect it to be a Roman Catholic thing, certainly after John and not what John was referring to in Rev 1:10. John would not be referring to Sunday, it would be a useless, vanity, because the Lord's day is a concoction of men. Revelation is a description of the Day of the Lord, mentioned often in the OT, John said, “I was in the spirit on the imperial day”.


You have probably heard men say, Revelation and Daniel go together like a hand in a glove, Revelation and Isaiah go together also; Revelation is the imperial day from God's perspective, Isaiah is the imperial day from Israel's (mankind's) perspective.


Rev 1:10, the imperial day Isa 2;12, the day of the lord.. Isa 2:21 ...His majesty...

Rev 1:8, I am the beginning and the ending Isa 44:4 I the Lord, the first and with the last; I am he.

Rev 2:16, sword of his mouth Isa 11: rod of his mouth

Rev 3:8, open and no man can shut it Isa 22:22, so he can open and none shall shut

Rev 6:15, hid themselves in the rocks Isa 2:19 when He rises to shake terribly the earth

Rev 7:4, number sealed Isa 4:2,3, everyone among the living in Jerusalem

Rev 7:9,14, all nations Isa 43:11 besides me there is no Saviour

Rev 7:17, wipe away tears Isa 25:8, wipe away tears

Rev 8:7, brought low Isa 2 proud and lofty, brought low


All the way through these books are parallel


Rev18:2, there you will have no rest Isa 23:12, Babylon has fallen, Isa 34:14

Rev 17: , multitudes Isa 8:7, including the King of Assyria

Rev 22:17, let him that is athirst come Isa 55:1, let everyone that thirsteth, come
 
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SabbathBlessings

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The word for Sabbath does not seem to appear in Revelation anywhere.
Once God defines something such as the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord thy God, written and spoken by God Exo 20:10, My holy day, the holy day Isa 58:13 , the only day God named- it changes not in scripture and now we as man can change God's definition as no one is above His Authority. Lord is God, so the Lords Day is God's Day which is the seventh day. All other days are for works and labors. Exo 20:9
 
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sparow

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Once God defines something such as the seventh day is the Sabbath of the Lord thy God, written and spoken by God Exo 20:10, My holy day, the holy day Isa 58:13 , the only day God named- it changes not in scripture and now we as man can change God's definition as no one is above His Authority. Lord is God, so the Lords Day is God's Day which is the seventh day. All other days are for works and labors. Exo 20:9

In Genesis “The seventh day” defines which day God sanctified; Sabbath or rest does not uniquely define which day, My holy day, defines which day assuming by holy one means sanctified or set apart. For many the word holy describes a Pagan spiritualism, I hope you are not one of them.

In Exo 20:10, the seventh day definition is confirmed, not renamed; to my mind the Law attached to the seventh day is not the which day definition.

The Lord's Day is defined by the Roman Catholic Church and its daughter Churches, who keep Sunday. In Rev 1:10, where we read, “I was in the spirit on the Lord's Day”, this is a translator's choice of words and preconceived ideas, or Roman Catholic rendering. A proper rendering is “I was in the spirit on the imperial day”, this removes the pagan inference and links the day described by Revelation to the Day of the Lord mentioned in the OT.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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In Genesis “The seventh day” defines which day God sanctified; Sabbath or rest does not uniquely define which day, My holy day, defines which day assuming by holy one means sanctified or set apart. For many the word holy describes a Pagan spiritualism, I hope you are not one of them.

In Exo 20:10, the seventh day definition is confirmed, not renamed; to my mind the Law attached to the seventh day is not the which day definition.

The Lord's Day is defined by the Roman Catholic Church and its daughter Churches, who keep Sunday. In Rev 1:10, where we read, “I was in the spirit on the Lord's Day”, this is a translator's choice of words and preconceived ideas, or Roman Catholic rendering. A proper rendering is “I was in the spirit on the imperial day”, this removes the pagan inference and links the day described by Revelation to the Day of the Lord mentioned in the OT.
I believe God was abundantly clear. God does not sanctify or set apart any other day except the seventh day, ,which He calls My holy day Isa 58:13 and the Sabbath Exo 20:10. I do not look to Catholic for my teachings so it matters not what they call Rev 1:10, God's Sabbath day was changed not by Rev 1:10 or anything in the scriptures, but by man just as God's Word predicted Dan 7:25

Guess we will have to agree to disagree.
 
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sparow

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I believe God was abundantly clear. God does not sanctify or set apart any other day except the seventh day, ,which He calls My holy day Isa 58:13 and the Sabbath Exo 20:10. I do not look to Catholic for my teachings so it matters not what they call Rev 1:10, God's Sabbath day was changed not by Rev 1:10 or anything in the scriptures, but by man just as God's Word predicted Dan 7:25

Guess we will have to agree to disagree.
We won't start disagreeing until we understand each other. If you are reading an English Bible, then it is Roman contaminated because the English language begins with the Latin script, many of its words are Latin based, and other words that come from many other languages is because Rome is multilingual, multiregional and multicultural; Rome is Satan the god of our world.

When King James had the Bible translated, it was interpreted/translated by ex-Catholic Priests with still Catholic Priests looking over their shoulders, the King James Bible is essentially a Catholic translation, as are other translations. So, when most Sunday Christians read The Lord's Day they think Sunday, the day Christ rose from the dead, and their eyes light up; had the SDA translated the Bible, John would have said, "I was in the spirit on the Sabbath," and when rad the SDA would light up like a Christmas tree. God does not deal in vanity, when John said, Rev 1:10, "I was in the spirit in in the Imperial day," this statement is relative to and definitive of the Book he is writing, Revelation is the imperial day also called the day of the Lord in the OT.
 
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