LDS Ye are gods

[Daniel Marsh]

Does Psalm 82:6 really teach that men can become “gods”? Let’s examine the context:

Psalm 82:1-2: “God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.”**.

Psalm 82:6-8: “I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.”

Here, in this passage, God calls these human judges “gods” because they were making life and death decisions for people, yet in an unjust manner. So, rather than proclaim that they were indeed “gods,” He announces judgment up on them by saying that they would “die” like the men that they were; thus, proving that they were false gods and that He alone is the only true God Who will arise and “judge the earth.” So we see that far from teaching that men can be exalted as “gods,” this passage actually teaches the opposite; that anyone who tries to exalt himself to the position of “god” will perish. Remember how Lucifer perished? He wanted to be “like” God in every way:

Isaiah 14:12-14: “How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations! For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.”

Not only did Lucifer fall from glory through this lie, but he used this very same lie of becoming “as gods” to convince Adam and Eve to sin (Genesis 3:5). This resulted in the judgment of death being passed upon all mankind. (Romans 5:12; 6:23).

Why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 to the Pharisees to support His claims of being God? Was Jesus trying to say that they had no right to judge His claim to Deity because other human judges were also called “gods”? Let’s examine the context:


John 10:30-39: “I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand.”

Was Jesus aligning Himself with the deity claims of these false human judges? No, He was not. His claims to Deity far exceeded the wicked judges who were acting as false “gods.” In mentioning them, Jesus contrasted His Deity as the one true God against them and the Pharisees who were acting JUST like these wicked judges when they were judging the true Son of God of blasphemy. By quoting Psalm 82 where God proclaimed the judgment of “death” upon these wicked false “gods,” Jesus was reminding the Pharisees of the serious consequences of their judgment of Him, stating that what these judges thought they were as gods, He was in reality, the one true God. This is why the Jews responded by trying to stone Him twice for blasphemy according to their law in Leviticus 24:16 that commands the stoning of people who claim the attributes of Deity.

ASK A MORMON:

• Both John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6 say: “Ye are gods?” Do you believe you are a “god” right now? If not, how can these verses apply to you? Do you think these wicked Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were real “gods” at the very moment that he said “Ye are gods?” How could they qualify to be real “gods” when they were trying to kill Jesus for blasphemy? Did you know that Lucifer was kicked out of Heaven for trying “exalt” himself to be “like” God (Isaiah 14:12-14, KJV)?

• Since it is obvious by the context that the Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were not real “gods,” can you see why Christians do not believe that these verses are teaching that men are “gods in embryo”? Rather, these wicked Pharisees were being called “gods” in a mockery way in order to prove that they were false gods who would die like the mere mortal judges of Psalm 82:7!

Scripture is clear that there is only one true God as the following verses proclaim:

1 John 5:20: “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.”

John 17:3: “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.”

Isaiah 44:8: “…Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.”

Isaiah 43:10 : “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD…understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.”

http://www.4mormon.org/did-jesus-say...eid=14cd6ee419

 

[CrystalDragon]

Does Psalm 82:6 really teach that men can become “gods”? Let’s examine the context:

Psalm 82:1-2: “God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.”**.

Psalm 82:6-8: “I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.”

Here, in this passage, God calls these human judges “gods” because they were making life and death decisions for people, yet in an unjust manner. So, rather than proclaim that they were indeed “gods,” He announces judgment up on them by saying that they would “die” like the men that they were; thus, proving that they were false gods and that He alone is the only true God Who will arise and “judge the earth.” So we see that far from teaching that men can be exalted as “gods,” this passage actually teaches the opposite; that anyone who tries to exalt himself to the position of “god” will perish. Remember how Lucifer perished? He wanted to be “like” God in every way:

Isaiah 14:12-14: “How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations! For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.”

Not only did Lucifer fall from glory through this lie, but he used this very same lie of becoming “as gods” to convince Adam and Eve to sin (Genesis 3:5). This resulted in the judgment of death being passed upon all mankind. (Romans 5:12; 6:23).

Why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 to the Pharisees to support His claims of being God? Was Jesus trying to say that they had no right to judge His claim to Deity because other human judges were also called “gods”? Let’s examine the context:


John 10:30-39: “I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand.”

Was Jesus aligning Himself with the deity claims of these false human judges? No, He was not. His claims to Deity far exceeded the wicked judges who were acting as false “gods.” In mentioning them, Jesus contrasted His Deity as the one true God against them and the Pharisees who were acting JUST like these wicked judges when they were judging the true Son of God of blasphemy. By quoting Psalm 82 where God proclaimed the judgment of “death” upon these wicked false “gods,” Jesus was reminding the Pharisees of the serious consequences of their judgment of Him, stating that what these judges thought they were as gods, He was in reality, the one true God. This is why the Jews responded by trying to stone Him twice for blasphemy according to their law in Leviticus 24:16 that commands the stoning of people who claim the attributes of Deity.

ASK A MORMON:

• Both John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6 say: “Ye are gods?” Do you believe you are a “god” right now? If not, how can these verses apply to you? Do you think these wicked Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were real “gods” at the very moment that he said “Ye are gods?” How could they qualify to be real “gods” when they were trying to kill Jesus for blasphemy? Did you know that Lucifer was kicked out of Heaven for trying “exalt” himself to be “like” God (Isaiah 14:12-14, KJV)?

• Since it is obvious by the context that the Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were not real “gods,” can you see why Christians do not believe that these verses are teaching that men are “gods in embryo”? Rather, these wicked Pharisees were being called “gods” in a mockery way in order to prove that they were false gods who would die like the mere mortal judges of Psalm 82:7!

Scripture is clear that there is only one true God as the following verses proclaim:

1 John 5:20: “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.”

John 17:3: “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.”

Isaiah 44:8: “…Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.”

Isaiah 43:10 : “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD…understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.”

http://www.4mormon.org/did-jesus-say...eid=14cd6ee419

"Lucifer" was just a Babylonian king if you read the whole passage, nothing more. And the serpent in Genesis was said to be nothing more than a serpent.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

That is the point of the text as you say. It shows that the Judges in Psa 82 and King are both only humans that dye.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

Not only did Lucifer fall from glory through this lie, but he used this very same lie of becoming “as gods” to convince Adam and Eve to sin (Genesis 3:5). This resulted in the judgment of death being passed upon all mankind. (Romans 5:12; 6:23).

Death would include that King.

 

[mark kennedy]

Does Psalm 82:6 really teach that men can become “gods”? Let’s examine the context:

Psalm 82:1-2: “God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.”**.

Psalm 82:6-8: “I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.”

Here, in this passage, God calls these human judges “gods” because they were making life and death decisions for people, yet in an unjust manner. So, rather than proclaim that they were indeed “gods,” He announces judgment up on them by saying that they would “die” like the men that they were; thus, proving that they were false gods and that He alone is the only true God Who will arise and “judge the earth.” So we see that far from teaching that men can be exalted as “gods,” this passage actually teaches the opposite; that anyone who tries to exalt himself to the position of “god” will perish. Remember how Lucifer perished? He wanted to be “like” God in every way:

Isaiah 14:12-14: “How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations! For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.”

Not only did Lucifer fall from glory through this lie, but he used this very same lie of becoming “as gods” to convince Adam and Eve to sin (Genesis 3:5). This resulted in the judgment of death being passed upon all mankind. (Romans 5:12; 6:23).

Why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 to the Pharisees to support His claims of being God? Was Jesus trying to say that they had no right to judge His claim to Deity because other human judges were also called “gods”? Let’s examine the context:


John 10:30-39: “I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand.”

Was Jesus aligning Himself with the deity claims of these false human judges? No, He was not. His claims to Deity far exceeded the wicked judges who were acting as false “gods.” In mentioning them, Jesus contrasted His Deity as the one true God against them and the Pharisees who were acting JUST like these wicked judges when they were judging the true Son of God of blasphemy. By quoting Psalm 82 where God proclaimed the judgment of “death” upon these wicked false “gods,” Jesus was reminding the Pharisees of the serious consequences of their judgment of Him, stating that what these judges thought they were as gods, He was in reality, the one true God. This is why the Jews responded by trying to stone Him twice for blasphemy according to their law in Leviticus 24:16 that commands the stoning of people who claim the attributes of Deity.

ASK A MORMON:

• Both John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6 say: “Ye are gods?” Do you believe you are a “god” right now? If not, how can these verses apply to you? Do you think these wicked Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were real “gods” at the very moment that he said “Ye are gods?” How could they qualify to be real “gods” when they were trying to kill Jesus for blasphemy? Did you know that Lucifer was kicked out of Heaven for trying “exalt” himself to be “like” God (Isaiah 14:12-14, KJV)?

• Since it is obvious by the context that the Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were not real “gods,” can you see why Christians do not believe that these verses are teaching that men are “gods in embryo”? Rather, these wicked Pharisees were being called “gods” in a mockery way in order to prove that they were false gods who would die like the mere mortal judges of Psalm 82:7!

Scripture is clear that there is only one true God as the following verses proclaim:

1 John 5:20: “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.”

John 17:3: “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.”

Isaiah 44:8: “…Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.”

Isaiah 43:10 : “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD…understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.”

http://www.4mormon.org/did-jesus-say...eid=14cd6ee419

That's (אֱלֹהִים elohiym H430'), generally it means God Almighty but sometimes it's used to speak of judges and priests. I think this helps to clarify a little:

Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?​

Son of God is a little easier to wrap your mind around, the king and the high priest were called, 'son of God' because of rank with regards to authority. Those to whom the word of God came were called 'gods', this has a precedence in the Pentateuch:

Then the LORD said to Moses, "See, I have made you like God to Pharaoh, and your brother Aaron will be your prophet. (Exodus 7:1)​

Of course this doesn't mean Moses was a god of some kind, it means it just seemed like it to Pharaoh. When the High Priest asked Jesus are you to 'Son of God', he was actually asking him if he was the king:

Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the Blessed? And Jesus said, I am: and ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the clouds of heaven. (Mark 14:63,64)
​

The Messiah would be from the line of David, rightful heir to the throne. They had been expecting him for hundreds of years so the High Priest just comes right out and asks, are you the Messiah, it does seem like the obvious question. Jesus doesn't just say yes, he speaks of coming in power and glory in the 'clouds of heaven'. Basically he is saying yes I'm so much more then you thought the Messiah was going to be.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

Amen, as a general principle a word gets its meaning from context.

 

[withwonderingawe]

Does Psalm 82:6 really teach that men can become “gods”? Let’s examine the context:

Psalm 82:1-2: “God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods. How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.”**.

Psalm 82:6-8: “I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High. But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes. Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.”

Here, in this passage, God calls these human judges “gods” because they were making life and death decisions for people, yet in an unjust manner. So, rather than proclaim that they were indeed “gods,” He announces judgment up on them by saying that they would “die” like the men that they were; thus, proving that they were false gods and that He alone is the only true God Who will arise and “judge the earth.” So we see that far from teaching that men can be exalted as “gods,” this passage actually teaches the opposite; that anyone who tries to exalt himself to the position of “god” will perish. Remember how Lucifer perished? He wanted to be “like” God in every way:

Isaiah 14:12-14: “How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations! For thou hast said in thine heart, I will ascend into heaven, I will exalt my throne above the stars of God: I will sit also upon the mount of the congregation, in the sides of the north: I will ascend above the heights of the clouds; I will be like the most High.”

Not only did Lucifer fall from glory through this lie, but he used this very same lie of becoming “as gods” to convince Adam and Eve to sin (Genesis 3:5). This resulted in the judgment of death being passed upon all mankind. (Romans 5:12; 6:23).

Why did Jesus quote Psalm 82:6 to the Pharisees to support His claims of being God? Was Jesus trying to say that they had no right to judge His claim to Deity because other human judges were also called “gods”? Let’s examine the context:


John 10:30-39: “I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me? The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God. Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods? If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken; Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God? If I do not the works of my Father, believe me not. But if I do, though ye believe not me, believe the works: that ye may know, and believe, that the Father is in me, and I in him. Therefore they sought again to take him: but he escaped out of their hand.”

Was Jesus aligning Himself with the deity claims of these false human judges? No, He was not. His claims to Deity far exceeded the wicked judges who were acting as false “gods.” In mentioning them, Jesus contrasted His Deity as the one true God against them and the Pharisees who were acting JUST like these wicked judges when they were judging the true Son of God of blasphemy. By quoting Psalm 82 where God proclaimed the judgment of “death” upon these wicked false “gods,” Jesus was reminding the Pharisees of the serious consequences of their judgment of Him, stating that what these judges thought they were as gods, He was in reality, the one true God. This is why the Jews responded by trying to stone Him twice for blasphemy according to their law in Leviticus 24:16 that commands the stoning of people who claim the attributes of Deity.

ASK A MORMON:

• Both John 10:34 and Psalm 82:6 say: “Ye are gods?” Do you believe you are a “god” right now? If not, how can these verses apply to you? Do you think these wicked Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were real “gods” at the very moment that he said “Ye are gods?” How could they qualify to be real “gods” when they were trying to kill Jesus for blasphemy? Did you know that Lucifer was kicked out of Heaven for trying “exalt” himself to be “like” God (Isaiah 14:12-14, KJV)?

• Since it is obvious by the context that the Pharisees to whom Jesus was speaking were not real “gods,” can you see why Christians do not believe that these verses are teaching that men are “gods in embryo”? Rather, these wicked Pharisees were being called “gods” in a mockery way in order to prove that they were false gods who would die like the mere mortal judges of Psalm 82:7!

Scripture is clear that there is only one true God as the following verses proclaim:

1 John 5:20: “And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life.”

John 17:3: “And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.”

Isaiah 44:8: “…Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.”

Isaiah 43:10 : “Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD…understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me.”

http://www.4mormon.org/did-jesus-say...eid=14cd6ee419

Let’s look at the whole passage
1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.
2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.
5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.
6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

In this passage the writer first praises God and then pleads to God for justices. God answers him and the writer then pleads again.

I’m looking at strongs and the first ‘God’ there is elohiym which is plural however there is a singular noun of ‘he’ in the sentence so it is read singular. (Personally, I believe it refers to God the Father and God the Mother for they are one). The word ‘standeth’ means to stand firmly or to establish. The word ‘congregation’ can be assemblage, concourse or a family gathering. The word ‘mighty’ is El and is the name of the supreme God.

So in his praise of God he recognizes his full authority as head of the family of El; He judegth among the gods/elohiym (s).

Then the writer ask; How long will Ye judge unjustly and accept the persons of the wicked, or why do the wicked seem to have it all? Please come and defend the poor rid them out of the hand of the wicked.

They (the wicked) know not. Know not what? The truth of God for they walk in darkness.

He feels “The foundation of the earth are out of course”, meaning the wicked rule when is this going to end.

Now the Lord speaks

6 I have said, Ye are gods/elohiym; and all of you are children of elyown
or the most High God/ 7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

So the Lord is reminding him that he is one of children of God and as such he will be their judge.

And then the writer pleads; Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

Or please get this cruel world over with.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

Let’s look at the whole passage
1 God standeth in the congregation of the mighty; he judgeth among the gods.
2 How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked? Selah.
3 Defend the poor and fatherless: do justice to the afflicted and needy.
4 Deliver the poor and needy: rid them out of the hand of the wicked.
5 They know not, neither will they understand; they walk on in darkness: all the foundations of the earth are out of course.
6 I have said, Ye are gods; and all of you are children of the most High.
7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.
8 Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

In this passage the writer first praises God and then pleads to God for justices. God answers him and the writer then pleads again.

I’m looking at strongs and the first ‘God’ there is elohiym which is plural however there is a singular noun of ‘he’ in the sentence so it is read singular. (Personally, I believe it refers to God the Father and God the Mother for they are one). The word ‘standeth’ means to stand firmly or to establish. The word ‘congregation’ can be assemblage, concourse or a family gathering. The word ‘mighty’ is El and is the name of the supreme God.

So in his praise of God he recognizes his full authority as head of the family of El; He judegth among the gods/elohiym (s).

Then the writer ask; How long will Ye judge unjustly and accept the persons of the wicked, or why do the wicked seem to have it all? Please come and defend the poor rid them out of the hand of the wicked.

They (the wicked) know not. Know not what? The truth of God for they walk in darkness.

He feels “The foundation of the earth are out of course”, meaning the wicked rule when is this going to end.

Now the Lord speaks

6 I have said, Ye are gods/elohiym; and all of you are children of elyown
or the most High God/ 7 But ye shall die like men, and fall like one of the princes.

So the Lord is reminding him that he is one of children of God and as such he will be their judge.

And then the writer pleads; Arise, O God, judge the earth: for thou shalt inherit all nations.

Or please get this cruel world over with.

There is a way to know for sure they are Human Judges and Not God!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

God of justice vs Psa 82 Judges

How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked?

Deuteronomy 32:4 The Rock! His work is perfect, for all his ways are just. A trustworthy God who does no wrong, he is righteous and straight.

Isaiah 30:18 Yet the Lord is just waiting to show you favor, he will have pity on you from on high; for the Lord is a God of justice; happy are all who wait for him!

Isaiah 45:21 Let them stand and present their case! Indeed, let them take counsel together. Who foretold this long ago, announced it in times gone by? Wasn’t it I, Lord? There is no other God besides me, a just God and a Savior; there is none besides me.

2 Thessalonians 1:5 This is clear evidence that God’s judgment is just; and as a result, you will be counted worthy of the Kingdom of God for which you are suffering.





2 Chronicles 19:7 Respect the Lord and make careful decisions, for the Lord our God disapproves of injustice, partiality, and bribery.”

Job 13:8 Will you show him partiality? Will you argue the case for God?

Romans 2:11 For there is no partiality with God.

 

[withwonderingawe]

There is a way to know for sure they are Human Judges and Not God!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Okay let me try again

The writer Asaph is mortal and he is writing a poem expressing his sorrow at the wickedness of the world. When the average guy looks at the rich getting richer and the poor getting poorer he can't understand it, it seems unjust to him.

When the young wealthy man asked what he could do to gain eternal life Jesus told him he had to sell all that he had and follow him. The man went away "very sorrowful" then Jesus said;

25 For it is easier for a camel to go through a needle’s eye, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.
26 And they that heard it said, Who then can be saved?

These people were surprised, they assumed that the rich were blessed by God and were going to heaven. The poor were cursed by God and so not going. The writer of Ps 82 is looking at the wicked rich people and wondering why God blessed them.

God is saying I'm the judge of the sons of El and you also are a child of El but you are here in this mortal world now and you will die and then I will judge all men. Then Asaph says oh thank goodness please make it soon.

It's really that simple

 

[Daniel Marsh]

You are right those whom God is addressing are both unjust and favor the wicked. Since, God is Just and does not favor the wicked then those whom God is addressing are not true gods and as such, would not be part of the True God's Council.

Romans 11:34Easy-to-Read Version (ERV)

34 As the Scriptures say,

“Who can know what is on the Lord’s mind?
Who is able to give him advice?”

1 Corinthians 2:16 ►

for, "Who has known the mind of the Lord so as to instruct him?" But we have the mind of Christ.

Psalm 33:11

The counsel of the LORD stands forever, The plans of His heart from generation to generation.

Also, John 10:35

John 10:35Revised Standard Version (RSV)

35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came (and scripture cannot be broken),

John 10:35New English Translation (NET Bible)

35 If those people to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’ (and the scripture cannot be broken),

If one studies the whole Bible, they will see that the word of God came only to humans because there is no plan of salvation in the Bible for demons, nor for false gods.

A general principle of interpretation is to interpret unclear texts in light of clear ones. To claim that the word of God came to anything other than Humans, one must use unclear texts like the "spirits in prison" texts in Peter's letter.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked?

One must reconcile that above character with the character, attributes of a god for this to be a valid proof text that Jesus is teaching the existence of other gods in John 10. I already posted the verses that shows that the only True God is Just and does not favor the wicked.

demons by their nature will favor the wicked and are unjust.

human judges can favor the wicked and can be unjust.

A True God is Just and does not favor the wicked.

Psa 82:2 speaks of the character of those being part of the "ye are gods" that dies like men.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

How long will ye judge unjustly, and accept the persons of the wicked?

Deuteronomy 32:4 The Rock! His work is perfect, for all his ways are just. A trustworthy God who does no wrong, he is righteous and straight.

Isaiah 30:18 Yet the Lord is just waiting to show you favor, he will have pity on you from on high; for the Lord is a God of justice; happy are all who wait for him!

Isaiah 45:21 Let them stand and present their case! Indeed, let them take counsel together. Who foretold this long ago, announced it in times gone by? Wasn’t it I, Lord? There is no other God besides me, a just God and a Savior; there is none besides me.

2 Thessalonians 1:5 This is clear evidence that God’s judgment is just; and as a result, you will be counted worthy of the Kingdom of God for which you are suffering.





2 Chronicles 19:7 Respect the Lord and make careful decisions, for the Lord our God disapproves of injustice, partiality, and bribery.”

Job 13:8 Will you show him partiality? Will you argue the case for God?

Romans 2:11 For there is no partiality with God.

 

[withwonderingawe]

You are right those whom God is addressing are both unjust and favor the wicked. Since, God is Just and does not favor the wicked then those whom God is addressing are not true gods and as such, would not be part of the True God's Council.

I don't know why this is so difficult for you. God makes it rain on the good and the bad, his sun shines down on the wicked and the righteous. Wicked men become rich and have power. At times good men are tried, they suffer poverty and illness. We are told not to lay up treasures on earth but look forward to the reward in heaven.

In the long run God does not favor the wicked for wickedness never was happiness. Judgement day will come and the righteous will be favored of the Lord.

God does not stand in the congregation of the demons. Not sure how you came to that conclusion.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

Somewhere I am corrected that Psa 82 from the Hebrew Parallelism in verses 6-7 and someone's comments that the Humans are leaders, not judges And, that God is the ultimate Judge.

 

[KevinSim]

John 10:35Revised Standard Version (RSV)

35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came (and scripture cannot be broken),

John 10:35New English Translation (NET Bible)

35 If those people to whom the word of God came were called ‘gods’ (and the scripture cannot be broken),

If one studies the whole Bible, they will see that the word of God came only to humans because there is no plan of salvation in the Bible for demons, nor for false gods.

A general principle of interpretation is to interpret unclear texts in light of clear ones. To claim that the word of God came to anything other than Humans, one must use unclear texts like the "spirits in prison" texts in Peter's letter.

There's another text that's getting left out here, namely John 10:36, that says, "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" In other words, Jesus is only saying that He is divine in the same sense that Psalm 82 was saying that people are divine.

 

[Daniel Marsh]

There's another text that's getting left out here, namely John 10:36, that says, "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?" In other words, Jesus is only saying that He is divine in the same sense that Psalm 82 was saying that people are divine.

If that interpretation where true, then they would not have picked up stones to kill Jesus. The reaction of his Jewish listeners rules out your interpretation.

Thanks,
Daniel

 

[KevinSim]

If that interpretation where true, then they would not have picked up stones to kill Jesus. The reaction of his Jewish listeners rules out your interpretation.

Then what did Jesus mean, by saying verse 35 together with 36?

 

[Daniel Marsh]

I think at this time the footnote from NET Bible is most compeling on verses 35-36.

"
A quotation from Ps 82:6. Technically the Psalms are not part of the OT “law” (which usually referred to the five books of Moses), but occasionally the term “law” was applied to the entire OT, as here. The problem in this verse concerns the meaning of Jesus’ quotation from Ps 82:6. It is important to look at the OT context: The whole line reads “I say, you are gods, sons of the Most High, all of you.” Jesus will pick up on the term “sons of the Most High” in 10:36, where he refers to himself as the Son of God. The psalm was understood in rabbinic circles as an attack on unjust judges who, though they have been given the title “gods” because of their quasi-divine function of exercising judgment, are just as mortal as other men. What is the argument here? It is often thought to be as follows: If it was an OT practice to refer to men like the judges as gods, and not blasphemy, why did the Jewish authorities object when this term was applied to Jesus? This really doesn’t seem to fit the context, however, since if that were the case Jesus would not be making any claim for “divinity” for himself over and above any other human being – and therefore he would not be subject to the charge of blasphemy. Rather, this is evidently a case of arguing from the lesser to the greater, a common form of rabbinic argument. The reason the OT judges could be called gods is because they were vehicles of the word of God (cf. 10:35). But granting that premise, Jesus deserves much more than they to be called God. He is the Word incarnate, whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world to save the world (10:36). In light of the prologue to the Gospel of John, it seems this interpretation would have been most natural for the author. If it is permissible to call men “gods” because they were the vehicles of the word of God, how much more permissible is it to use the word “God” of him who is the Word of God?





85 sn The parenthetical note And the scripture cannot be broken belongs to Jesus’ words rather than the author’s. Not only does Jesus appeal to the OT to defend himself against the charge of blasphemy, but he also adds that the scripture cannot be “broken.” In this context he does not explain precisely what is meant by “broken,” but it is not too hard to determine. Jesus’ argument depended on the exact word used in the context of Ps 82:6. If any other word for “judge” had been used in the psalm, his argument would have been meaningless. Since the scriptures do use this word in Ps 82:6, the argument is binding, because they cannot be “broken” in the sense of being shown to be in error."NET Bible Online

 

[Kiwi Christian]

Do you hope to become a God or Goddess of your own planet like mormonism teaches?