The 7000 years of human history - with proof

[EclipseEventSigns]

There is tangible proof that the first day of creation began 6000 years ago. I'd have to write a whole lengthy post. But basically it can be shown that the 5th day of Creation (Thursday) was the day the universe began at the new moon phase on Nisan 1 which was April 14, 3970 BC.

Anyone can verify this for themselves.
1. Assuming that God's word is true when it states in multiple places that 1000 literal years is equivalent to a Day according to God, then this provides some tangible data points.

2. Two additional data points provide some boundaries. The 1000 year Millennial Kingdom is expected to be the final portion of human history (ie. time). This is very often described as the Day of the Lord. Here again 1000 years = 1 Day. In addition, the Jewish year is at roughly 6000 years of their history. It can be shown that they have omitted a good number of years so their year count can not be totally accurate. But God's chosen nation has counted history to roughly 6000 years.

3. Therefore, Creation must have occurred about 6000 years ago. And with the Millennial kingdom expected to occur imminently, then history will be a total of 7000 years altogether. The 7 Days of Creation are a strong type giving us this pattern.

4. Jesus Christ died/resurrected about 2000 years ago. Considering each 1000 year period as a "day", then this happened on Day 4 - ie. Wednesday - the middle of the week. This was the 4000th year of history. This date can be proven to have been Wednesday, April 25, 31 AD - that is Nisan 14 of that year. If 31 AD was the 4000th year of history, then what was the first year? It was 3970 BC.

5. Here is the kicker. The month in the Jewish calendar always begins at the new moon phase. The first month of the religious year is Nisan which is always in March/April. The first day of the month should be determined at the sighting of the first sliver of the crescent after the new moon. This occurs on average 18 hours after the actual new moon conjunction. In 3970 BC (according to NASA tables), the new moon phase occurred on Wednesday, April 13. According to the Genesis record, what happened on the 4th day? The sun and moon and the rest of the stars were created. By the end of that day, they were in the position they would be in to begin counting time according to their positions. So taking into account 18 hours later, then the very first day of the very first month of the very first year would have been Nisan 1 on Thursday, the 14th of April, 3970 BC.

6. A couple of very important things that verify this. This particular month day order, with Nisan beginning on a Thursday, leads to Passover (Nisan 14) occurring on a Wednesday two weeks later - the middle of the week. This month pattern is the exact same pattern as occurred during the Exodus (this can be verified by the dates included in the narrative). It is also the same month day order as occurred in 31 AD - Christ's death and resurrection.
In addition, if 3970 is assumed to be the beginning of the year count, then the beginning of the 7 year Sabbatical cycle should begin at this point as well. It does lead to the year of the Exodus in the proper year (that would have to be proven at another time). But it also means that 31 AD was the exact middle of that Sabbatical cycle. Therefore, Christ died on the middle Day of the Week (totalling 7000 years), the middle of the 7 year Sabbatical Week and on a Wednesday, the middle of the 7 day week. The odds of this are just astronomical.

7. In addition, the odds that 3970 just happens to have the new moon occur in the exact proper day order that matches the Genesis record which just happens to match the beginning of 7000 years is also astronomical. It's all verifiable from NASA lunar tables. There's no agenda and fudging the data. You can't make this stuff up.

3790 BC - Probably first day of human history.
april May3970 BC — Postimages


NOTE: The purpose of this thread is to discuss this information. This thread is for people to examine the evidences that were presented, ask questions about the methods that were used in the research, check out the information for themselves and discuss their reactions.

Please abide by this stated purpose.

 

[sovereigngrace]

Anyone can verify this for themselves.
1. Assuming that God's word is true when it states in multiple places that 1000 literal years is equivalent to a Day according to God, then this provides some tangible data points.

2. Two additional data points provide some boundaries. The 1000 year Millennial Kingdom is expected to be the final portion of human history (ie. time). This is very often described as the Day of the Lord. Here again 1000 years = 1 Day. In addition, the Jewish year is at roughly 6000 years of their history. It can be shown that they have omitted a good number of years so their year count can not be totally accurate. But God's chosen nation has counted history to roughly 6000 years.

3. Therefore, Creation must have occurred about 6000 years ago. And with the Millennial kingdom expected to occur imminently, then history will be a total of 7000 years altogether. The 7 Days of Creation are a strong type giving us this pattern.

4. Jesus Christ died/resurrected about 2000 years ago. Considering each 1000 year period as a "day", then this happened on Day 4 - ie. Wednesday - the middle of the week. This was the 4000th year of history. This date can be proven to have been Wednesday, April 25, 31 AD - that is Nisan 14 of that year. If 31 AD was the 4000th year of history, then what was the first year? It was 3970 BC.

5. Here is the kicker. The month in the Jewish calendar always begins at the new moon phase. The first month of the religious year is Nisan which is always in March/April. The first day of the month should be determined at the sighting of the first sliver of the crescent after the new moon. This occurs on average 18 hours after the actual new moon conjunction. In 3970 BC (according to NASA tables), the new moon phase occurred on Wednesday, April 13. According to the Genesis record, what happened on the 4th day? The sun and moon and the rest of the stars were created. By the end of that day, they were in the position they would be in to begin counting time according to their positions. So taking into account 18 hours later, then the very first day of the very first month of the very first year would have been Nisan 1 on Thursday, the 14th of April, 3970 BC.

6. A couple of very important things that verify this. This particular month day order, with Nisan beginning on a Thursday, leads to Passover (Nisan 14) occurring on a Wednesday two weeks later - the middle of the week. This month pattern is the exact same pattern as occurred during the Exodus (this can be verified by the dates included in the narrative). It is also the same month day order as occurred in 31 AD - Christ's death and resurrection.
In addition, if 3970 is assumed to be the beginning of the year count, then the beginning of the 7 year Sabbatical cycle should begin at this point as well. It does lead to the year of the Exodus in the proper year (that would have to be proven at another time). But it also means that 31 AD was the exact middle of that Sabbatical cycle. Therefore, Christ died at the middle of the 7000 year week, the middle of the 7 year Sabbatical Week and on a Wednesday, the middle of the 7 day week. The odds of this are just astronomical.

7. In addition, the odds that 3970 just happens to have the new moon occur in the exact proper day order that matches the Genesis record which just happens to match the beginning of 7000 years is also astronomical. It's all verifiable from NASA lunar tables. There's no agenda and fudging the data. You can't make this stuff up.

View attachment 317645

Most importantly, where exactly is your hard Scripture to support this elaborate theory? So far you have presented nothing but speculations and opinions.

 

[DavidPT]

Therefore, Christ died at the middle of the 7000 year week

I'm not seeing how the math is adding up here? From Christ's death to now, it's been close to 2000 years. And if we factor in a thousand years, that equals 3000 years from the death of Christ until the end of the 7000 years. 3000 years would not be half of 7000 years, 3500 years would be. This assuming Christ returns within the next 20 or 30 years or somewhere thereabout. How then are you placing Christ's death in the middle of 7000 years when you have already indicated it was around 4000 years from the beginning to Christ? 4000 years is not 1/2 of 7000 years, 3500 years is.

 

[EclipseEventSigns]

I'm not seeing how the math is adding up here? From Christ's death to now, it's been close to 2000 years. And if we factor in a thousand years, that equals 3000 years from the death of Christ until the end of the 7000 years. 3000 years would not be half of 7000 years, 3500 years would be. This assuming Christ returns within the next 20 or 30 years or somewhere thereabout. How then are you placing Christ's death in the middle of 7000 years when you have already indicated it was around 4000 years from the beginning to Christ? 4000 years is not 1/2 of 7000 years, 3500 years is.

Dealing in Days. The 4th Day is the middle of the Week. Each Day just happens to be 1000 years. I see I had to be more specific in my description. The important point is thinking in Days, whether they be made up of 1000 years each, or years (ie. Sabbatical cycle), or 24 hour days.

 

[ByTheSpirit]

This is interesting, and I do think there is some credence to the idea of 2 Peter 3:8 being a prophetic timetable perse. If true.... if. This would make the Great Tribulation (a literal 7 year period) as starting sometime within the next year or two, and honestly judging by how the world looks right now, I wouldn't doubt that in the least.

 

[sovereigngrace]

Before responding, how about actually going through the post carefully. And how about verifying it all for yourself. Nothing you said is accurate to this post. Please stay on topic.

"Anyone can verify this for themselves."

It is all wild unsubstantiated claims. The Bible doesn't say that. [Staff Edit] Where is your Scripture?

 

[EclipseEventSigns]

It is all wild unsubstantiated claims. The Bible doesn't say that.[Staff Edit] Where is your Scripture?

Did you check it all out. [Staff Edit]

 

[sovereigngrace]

Did you check it all out. [Staff Edit].

I did. No Scripture teaches a 7000 years earth.

You also force a hyper literal meaning on Rev 20. This doesn’t add up. A thousand is a highly symbolic figure representing a long period of time.

 

[ByTheSpirit]

I did. No Scripture teaches a 7000 years earth.

You also force a hyper literal meaning on Rev 20. This doesn’t add up. A thousand is a highly symbolic figure representing a long period of time.

Just curious, where does scripture teach that?

 

[EclipseEventSigns]

I did. No Scripture teaches a 7000 years earth.

You also force a hyper literal meaning on Rev 20. This doesn’t add up. A thousand is a highly symbolic figure representing a long period of time.

There's 6 times in Revelation where it refers to a literal 1000 years. It can't be more plain. [Staff Edit].

 

[sovereigngrace]

Just curious, where does scripture teach that?

Revelation is a highly figurative book full of much symbolism

 

[DavidPT]

Dealing in Days. The 4th Day is the middle of the Week. Each Day just happens to be 1000 years. I see I had to be more specific in my description. The important point is thinking in Days, whether they be made up of 1000 years each, or years (ie. Sabbatical cycle), or 24 hour days.

I think I'm finally grasping how are you are arriving at some of this. If there are 7 days this means the 4th day is always going to be the middle of these 7 days. If day 1 starts on Sunday, and day 7 ends on Saturday, this makes Wednesday the 4th day, the middle of the week. And then if we apply this to thousand year days, and that there are also 7 of them, that too makes the 4th day(the 4th thousand year) the middle of the week as well. Assuming I'm on the same page with you now, your math makes sense after all.

 

[ByTheSpirit]

Revelation is a highly figurative book full of much symbolism

Maybe but that's not what I asked, where does scripture teach 1000 years is symbolic for a long period of time as you said.

 

[sovereigngrace]

There's 6 times in Revelation where it refers to a literal 1000 years. It can't be more plain. [Staff Edit]

[Staff Edit] Really! [Staff Edit] Obviously you have no biblical support for your position.

It doesn't matter whether it says "a thousand" 666 times. It is a figurative term in a highly symbolic setting. BTW, it doesn't say "one thousand" as you claim.

I have a few questions:

Moses employs `a thousand' in Deuteronomy 7:9 saying, "Know therefore that the LORD thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

1 Chronicles 16:13-17 also states, "O ye seed of Israel his servant, ye children of Jacob, his chosen ones. He is the LORD our God; his judgments are in all the earth. Be ye mindful always of his covenant; the word which he commanded to a thousand generations; Even of the covenant which he made with Abraham, and of his oath unto Isaac; And hath confirmed the same to Jacob for a law, and to Israel for an everlasting covenant."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A thousand and ten thousand are used together in Psalm 91, saying, "Thou shalt not be afraid for the terror by night; nor for the arrow that flieth by day; Nor for the pestilence that walketh in darkness; nor for the destruction that wasteth at noonday. A thousand shall fall at thy side, and ten thousand at thy right hand; but it shall not come nigh thee" (vv 5-7).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

A similar contrast between these two numbers or ideas is seen in Deuteronomy 32:30, where a rhetorical question is asked, "How should one chase a thousand, and two put ten thousand to flight, except their Rock had sold them, and the Lord had shut them up?"

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Joshua affirms, on the same vein, in chapter 23, "One man of you shall chase a thousand: for the LORD your God, he it is that fighteth for you, as he hath promised you" (v 10).

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Isaiah the prophet similarly declares in Isaiah 30:17, "one thousand shall flee at the rebuke of one."

This incidentally is the only passage in Scripture that makes mention of the actual number "one thousand," albeit, the term is used to impress a spiritual truth.

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Psalm 84:9-10 says, "Behold, O God our shield, and look upon the face of thine anointed. For a day in thy courts is better than a thousand. I had rather be a doorkeeper in the house of my God, than to dwell in the tents of wickedness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The figure a thousand is also employed in Psalm 50:10-11 saying, "For every beast of the forest is mine, and the cattle upon a thousand hills. I know all the fowls of the mountains: and the wild beasts of the field are mine."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

Ecclesiastes 7:27-28 succinctly says, "one man among a thousand have I found."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

In the same vein, Job 33:23 declares, "If there be a messenger with him, an interpreter, one among a thousand, to shew unto man his uprightness."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

The distinct contrast between one and a thousand is again found in Job 9:2-3, where Job declares, "I know it is so of a truth: but how should man be just with God? If he will contend with him, he cannot answer him one of a thousand."

Is this a literal or figurative thousand?

 

[Spiritual Jew]

There's 6 times in Revelation where it refers to a literal 1000 years. It can't be more plain. If you don't agree, this thread is not for you and please refrain from posting any more.

The number of times it's referenced has nothing to do with whether it's literal or not. The beast is referenced over 30 times in the book of Revelation. Does that make it a literal beast?

[Staff Edit]

 

[EclipseEventSigns]

Please address my questions.

You first. Verify that you've researched everything in my initial post.

 

[Spiritual Jew]

Staff Edited Quote.

[Staff Edit] You're being asked to provide scriptural support for your views and I don't see where you're providing it. I think it's a reasonable request. I see a lot of speculation, but that's about it. Where is the scriptural support?

Anyway, do you have any thoughts on the rest of what I said? You seem to think that the number of times the thousand years is mentioned in Revelation 20 has something to do with determining if it's literal or not. Do you understand that the number of times it's referenced does not determine if it's literal or not?

 

[DavidPT]

Staff Edited Quote

I have read the OP several times now. And each time I read it, I got more out of it each time. If we make the millennium the day of the Lord, as you have proposed in the OP, what about when the millennium is finished and it is then satan's little season? That should mean that it is no longer the day of the Lord.

2 Peter 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

Everything recorded in these verses happen during the day of the Lord. Which means if we apply the day of the Lord to the millennium, all of these things would have to be fulfilled at the beginning of it and not at the end of it or after it has ended. At the end of the millennium is satan's little season, we obviously can't apply any of the above at the end of millenium if satan's little season follows it. And if we apply any of the above after satan's little season or even after the time of the great white throne judgment, that too disagrees with the text above since it indicates these things happen during the day of the Lord, not after the day of the Lord.

 

[EclipseEventSigns]

I have read the OP several times now. And each time I read it, I got more out of it each time. If we make the millennium the day of the Lord, as you have proposed in the OP, what about when the millennium is finished and it is then satan's little season? That should mean that it is no longer the day of the Lord.

2 Peter 3:10 But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
11 Seeing then that all these things shall be dissolved, what manner of persons ought ye to be in all holy conversation and godliness,
12 Looking for and hasting unto the coming of the day of God, wherein the heavens being on fire shall be dissolved, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat?
13 Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness.

Everything recorded in these verses happen during the day of the Lord. Which means if we apply the day of the Lord to the millennium, all of these things would have to be fulfilled at the beginning of it and not at the end of it or after it has ended. At the end of the millennium is satan's little season, we obviously can't apply any of the above at the end of millenium if satan's little season follows it. And if we apply any of the above after satan's little season or even after the time of the great white throne judgment, that too disagrees with the text above since it indicates these things happen during the day of the Lord, not after the day of the Lord.

Interesting that the quote you include has a typo. "in the which"? Doesn't make sense.
The verse actually reads " But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, in which the heavens will pass away with a roar and the elements will be destroyed with intense heat, and the earth and [fn]its works will be [fn]burned up."
People assume "day of the Lord" is a single day. It is not. It is a period of time - as Revelation clearly states. The modifier "in which" doesn't mean at the beginning. It means sometime during that entire period. And by context, it means at the very end - since it's the destruction of the heavens and earth.
That is really the entire assumption here based on Scriptural evidence. God's day is not a 24 hour period. It is periods of 1000 literal years that He has segmented all of human history into. The Genesis account of Creation is the type.

"If we make the millennium the day of the Lord, as you have proposed". Actually that is not anything to do with me. That is what the Old Testament prophets continually say. They constantly talk about the "day of the Lord", "that day", "when that day comes", etc. They always refer to the time when the Son of David ascends His throne in Israel and rules.

 

[DavidPT]

Interesting that the quote you include has a typo. "in the which"? Doesn't make sense.

King James Version

2 Peter 3:10 (KJV) But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up.
What Does 2 Peter 3:10 Mean? "But the day of the Lord will come as a thief; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall be dissolved with fervent ."



I don't know if it is a typo or not, certainly not a typo on my part since all I did was copy and paste it---it is apparently translated like this in all KJVs.

The point I was trying to make, if one is going to argue that a literal thousand years are meant by the day of the Lord, and the fact Revelation 20 tells us 3 times that the thousand years have an ending point, one can't then argue that it is still the day of the Lord, a literal thousand years, after this literal thousand years have finished.

I'm Premill and believe a literal 1000 years are meant by a thousand years, and also believe the day of the Lord likely consists of more than just a single day, yet I can't see the logic in the day of the Lord being a literal 1000 years when it would mean that the 1000 years don't end but are still continuing on into satan's little season and possibly the great white throne judgment, therefore contradicting that the day of the Lord equals 1000 literal years. When satan's little season begins this means a new day begins, it is no longer this literal 1000 year day that had preceded it.

If 900 AD to 1900 AD consists of a literal 1000 years, how could it still be this same literal 1000 years in 1902, 1903, 1906, so on and so on? In the same way, if the day of the Lord equals the millennium, how can it still be the day of the Lord once the millennium ends?