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EXPLAIN ROM 4:1 ??

Diamond72

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AND here is what Rom 1:1 really means .
The scripture I am talking about is Matthew 12 36But I tell you that men will give an account on the day of judgment for every careless word they have spoken. 37For by your words you will be acquitted, and by your words you will be condemned.”…

It does not matter what people's opinions are. We serve God, not people. We are told that we are going to be persecuted. Even we are told: "Great is your reward".

Matthew 5:10-12
:

> "Blessed are those who are persecuted because of righteousness, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven. Blessed are you when people insult you, persecute you and falsely say all kinds of evil against you because of me. Rejoice and be glad, because great is your reward in heaven, for in the same way they persecuted the prophets who were before you."
 
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Dan Perez

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The scripture I am talking about is Matthew 12 36But I tell you that men will give an account on the day of judgment for every careless word they have spoken. 37For by your words you will be acquitted, and by your words you will be condemned.”…

It does not matter what people's opinions are. We serve God, not people. We are told that we are going to be persecuted. Even we are told: "Great is your reward".

Matthew 5:10-12
:

> "Blessed are those who are persecuted because of righteousness, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven. Blessed are you when people insult you, persecute you and falsely say all kinds of evil against you because of me. Rejoice and be glad, because great is your reward in heaven, for in the same way they persecuted the prophets who were before you."
And what JUDGDMENT are you referring too with a verse ??

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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And what JUDGDMENT are you referring too with a verse ??
In Matthew 12:36, Jesus warns that "on the day of judgment people will give account for every careless word they speak." This verse emphasizes the importance of being mindful of our words, as they hold weight and significance in the eyes of God. Essentially, it underscores the belief that our words are not trivial, and we are accountable for them.

In Christian theology, the Day of Judgment is when God will judge all humanity. It's believed that on this day, everyone will be held accountable for their actions, and those who have followed God's will shall be rewarded, while those who haven't will face consequences. It's a central theme in many religious texts, symbolizing ultimate justice and the final separation of good from evil
 
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Dan Perez

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In Matthew 12:36, Jesus warns that "on the day of judgment people will give account for every careless word they speak." This verse emphasizes the importance of being mindful of our words, as they hold weight and significance in the eyes of God. Essentially, it underscores the belief that our words are not trivial, and we are accountable for them.

In Christian theology, the Day of Judgment is when God will judge all humanity. It's believed that on this day, everyone will be held accountable for their actions, and those who have followed God's will shall be rewarded, while those who haven't will face consequences. It's a central theme in many religious texts, symbolizing ultimate justice and the final separation of good from evil
And that means that the book of MATTHEW was written to the BODY OF CHRIST ?

And when does the day of Judgment begin ??

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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when does the day of Judgment begin ??
IF YOU are convinced we are talking about a 24 hour day than on or about May 27, 3029. Based on the church beginning on the day of pentacost in the year 29. The Kingdom age begins 2,000 years later and then there is a new heaven and a new earth. I do not know how we transition from one age to the next.

There is a resurrection at the end of the Kingdom age. People can not be judged apart from their body. Then there are people who will be thrown into the lake of fire. John Wesley believed the actual elements that made them will be resurrected. This is when there will be a new heaven and a new earth.

  • Revelation 21:1
    “Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away, and there was no longer any sea”.

  • Revelation 21:4
    “He will wipe away every tear from their eyes, and death shall be no more, neither shall there be mourning nor crying nor pain any more, for the former things have passed away”.

  • I tend to believe Adam and Jesus were born and died exactly 4,000 years apart. IF you believe in a literal 24 hour day then I go by Bishop Ussher.
 

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Dan Perez

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IF YOU are convinced we are talking about a 24 hour day than on or about May 27, 3029. Based on the church beginning on the day of pentacost in the year 29. The Kingdom age begins 2,000 years later and then there is a new heaven and a new earth. I do not know how we transition from one age to the next.

There is a resurrection at the end of the Kingdom age. People can not be judged apart from their body. Then there are people who will be thrown into the lake of fire. John Wesley believed the actual elements that made them will be resurrected. This is when there will be a new heaven and a new earth.

  • Revelation 21:1
    “Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth, for the first heaven and the first earth had passed away, and there was no longer any sea”.

  • Revelation 21:4
    “He will wipe away every tear from their eyes, and death shall be no more, neither shall there be mourning nor crying nor pain any more, for the former things have passed away”.

  • I tend to believe Adam and Jesus were born and died exactly 4,000 years apart. IF you believe in a literal 24 hour day then I go by Bishop Ussher.
So , you are quoting only from Revelation ??

What about Matthew 24:40--43 ?

Or maybe Matt 25:31-32

Or maybe about 1 Thess 4:13-17

Or 2 Thess 2:; 1

Or 2 Thess 2:1 , 2, 3 ?/

Your thoughts ?

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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Your thoughts ?
The "Day of the Lord" and the "Day of Judgment" are terms used in biblical texts, but they carry different nuances:

  • Day of the Lord: This term often refers to a future time when God will intervene powerfully in human history to bring judgment and salvation. It's depicted as both a time of wrath against the wicked and deliverance for the faithful. It's mentioned in books like Isaiah, Joel, Amos, and Zephaniah.
  • Day of Judgment: This phrase is more specific and is associated with the final judgment at the end of the world, where individuals are judged by God based on their deeds and faith. It is often linked with the resurrection of the dead and eternal destiny. This concept is emphasized in the New Testament, particularly in Revelation and Matthew.
 
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Dan Perez

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The "Day of the Lord" and the "Day of Judgment" are terms used in biblical texts, but they carry different nuances:

  • Day of the Lord: This term often refers to a future time when God will intervene powerfully in human history to bring judgment and salvation. It's depicted as both a time of wrath against the wicked and deliverance for the faithful. It's mentioned in books like Isaiah, Joel, Amos, and Zephaniah.
  • Day of Judgment: This phrase is more specific and is associated with the final judgment at the end of the world, where individuals are judged by God based on their deeds and faith. It is often linked with the resurrection of the dead and eternal destiny. This concept is emphasized in the New Testament, particularly in Revelation and Matthew.
What are your thoughts of 1 Cor 5:5 ??

And 2 Thess 2:2 ??

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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What are your thoughts of 1 Cor 5:5 ??
The more immorality a person is involved with the greater the risk for sickness and disease. People need to control themselves or suffer the consequences. It is a serious situation to be involved with a mother and a daughter and we need to do what ever it takes to that.. Paul says they will suffer in the flesh.
 
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Dan Perez

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The more immorality a person is involved with the greater the risk for sickness and disease. People need to control themselves or suffer the consequences. It is a serious situation to be involved with a mother and a daughter and we need to do what ever it takes to that.. Paul says they will suffer in the flesh.
Reading Rom 5:1 and 2 it is a son and mother .

And that ASSEMBLY refused to take action , meaning judge that son and Paul JUDGED him and turn over to

Satan verse 5 , for the DEATH of the flesh i order that the spirit may be saved in the DAY of the Lord Jesus .

Everyone should know that Unbelievers , spirit , all go back to Christ that gave it , ECCL 12:7 !!

So where does the spirit of the believer go at his DEATH ??

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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Reading Rom 5:1 and 2 it is a son and mother .
Oh, ok. So a son can not have relations with his step mother, but it is ok for a daugher to have relations with her step dad? I just assumed that they were both the same. If you look at the sex offenders in your neighborhood you will see that there is like one women for ever 15 men on the list.

My father was a Pediatrician. When they were shredding his medical records I was amazed that close to 20% of his patients had been evaluated for sexual abuse. The paper has a big picture of the doll on it where I assume they ask where did he touch you. I do not know anything about them because I never read them. That would have been against the law. I remember when Clinton signed that into law.
 
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Dan Perez

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Oh, ok. So a son can not have relations with his step mother, but it is ok for a daugher to have relations with her step dad? I just assumed that they were both the same. If you look at the sex offenders in your neighborhood you will see that there is like one women for ever 15 men on the list.

My father was a Pediatrician. When they were shredding his medical records I was amazed that close to 20% of his patients had been evaluated for sexual abuse. The paper has a big picture of the doll on it where I assume they ask where did he touch you. I do not know anything about them because I never read them. That would have been against the law. I remember when Clinton signed that into law.
And I do not see the word STEP MOTHER ??

Just take your time in replying and I also made mistakes !!

dan p
 
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Dan Perez

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My pure mind can not imagine a mother having sex with her son. That is impossible. Things like that just do not happen.
And 1 Cor 5:1 says , HIS FATHER 'S // PATER a noun in the GENITIVE CASE , means the case of Definition in the Singular .

WIFE // GYNE a noun , in the ACCUSATIVE CASE , means limited to the mother , in the Singular , Feminine !!

That is how the Greek was written !

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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And 1 Cor 5:1 says , HIS FATHER 'S // PATER a noun in the GENITIVE CASE , means the case of Definition in the Singular .

WIFE // GYNE a noun , in the ACCUSATIVE CASE , means limited to the mother , in the Singular , Feminine !!

That is how the Greek was written !
Lev 18 8 "You must not have sexual relations with your father’s wife; it would dishonor your father."

If the son is NOT to have sexual relations with the mother in law. Then the mother in law is NOT to have sexual relations with him. That is the exact same thing.

Are you really suggesting that it is ok for her to have relations with him but it is not ok for him to have relations with her. No where does 1 Cor 5:1 say anything about rape as you suggest. Although in this state you have to have verbal consent. So in the case where Lot's daughters got him drunk which in this state is considered rape.

Genesis 19:30-38. After the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, Lot's daughters got him drunk and had sexual relations with him to preserve their family line. This resulted in the birth of Moab and Ben-Ammi, who became the ancestors of the Moabites and Ammonites.

The descendants, the Moabites and Ammonites, had a complicated relationship with Israel, often opposing them and being seen as outside the covenant community. Their status as "lost or saved" isn't explicitly detailed in terms of individual salvation but rather seen within the broader narrative of conflict and estrangement with Israel

They were not considered to be a witness or the people of God.
 
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Dan Perez

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Lev 18 8 "You must not have sexual relations with your father’s wife; it would dishonor your father."

If the son is NOT to have sexual relations with the mother in law. Then the mother in law is NOT to have sexual relations with him. That is the exact same thing.

Are you really suggesting that it is ok for her to have relations with him but it is not ok for him to have relations with her. No where does 1 Cor 5:1 say anything about rape as you suggest. Although in this state you have to have verbal consent. So in the case where Lot's daughters got him drunk which in this state is considered rape.

Genesis 19:30-38. After the destruction of Sodom and Gomorrah, Lot's daughters got him drunk and had sexual relations with him to preserve their family line. This resulted in the birth of Moab and Ben-Ammi, who became the ancestors of the Moabites and Ammonites.

The descendants, the Moabites and Ammonites, had a complicated relationship with Israel, often opposing them and being seen as outside the covenant community. Their status as "lost or saved" isn't explicitly detailed in terms of individual salvation but rather seen within the broader narrative of conflict and estrangement with Israel

They were not considered to be a witness or the people of God.
And 1 Cor 5:1 does not mention RAPE and I did not write as you said and never mentioned Mother-in law either !!

dan p
 
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Diamond72

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1 Cor 5:1 does not mention RAPE
1 Corinthians 5:1 addresses a case of sexual immorality within the church, specifically mentioning a man having a relationship with his father's wife. "It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and of a kind that even pagans do not tolerate: A man is sleeping with his father’s wife."

Paul again addressed this in 2 Corinthians 2:6-8. After the man was disciplined by the church for his sinful actions, Paul encouraged the congregation to forgive and comfort him, so he would not be overwhelmed by excessive sorrow. Paul wrote, "The punishment inflicted on him by the majority is sufficient. Now instead, you ought to forgive and comfort him, so that he will not be overwhelmed by excessive sorrow. I urge you, therefore, to reaffirm your love for him."
 
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BelieveItOarKnot

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And very few have called themselves DISPENSATIONALIST !!

Just asking as to what DISPENSATION // OIKONOMA means to you ?

dan p
The essence of dispensationalism is this statement:

Hebrews 1:
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,

Sundry/Diverse

But as we also should know, that at the end, He Spoke through His Son. The Last Word.

And if we read between the lines, it was always the Son speaking, even through the prophets, 1 Peter 1:10-11

We can read about dispensations past. Our concerns however are in our present respective laps

Dispensational positions are quite varied. IF it were an accurate tool, there wouldn't be so much diversity in the arena.
It's just another way to capture a crowd. Corral them. Make them pay. Typical hireling thingy
 
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Diamond72

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The essence of dispensationalism is this statement:

Hebrews 1:
1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
The Greek word in this verse is palai. The actual word for age or era is αἰών (aión). "Dispensation" is a more specific theological concept that encompasses not just the time period, but the unique responsibilities, revelations, and covenants associated with each period.

So, while "age" or "era" might broadly align with the idea of dispensations, the concept of dispensation includes a more detailed framework.
 
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