Copeland's interpretation of Matthew 19:24

[DamianWarS]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God. And He said, if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

So let's study the Greek behind that and see what it means. Is Copeland right in that the Greek uniquely identifies a trust in money over amassing wealth or is this an interpretation of the text in specific context speaking with the rich man or an applied broader context of other passages but not unique to a specific Greek word?

What do you think Copeland means by his remarks and do you agree with him?

 

[BobRyan]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God. And He said, if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

So let's study the Greek behind that and see what it means. Is Copeland right in that the Greek uniquely identifies a trust in money over amassing wealth or is this an interpretation of the text in specific context speaking with the rich man or an applied broader context of other passages but not unique to a specific Greek word?

What do you think Copeland means by his remarks and do you agree with him?

Rumor has it that used car salesmen sometimes get the KC award if they snooker an unsuspecting buyer to an extreme level.

 

[Dave L]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God. And He said, if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

So let's study the Greek behind that and see what it means. Is Copeland right in that the Greek uniquely identifies a trust in money over amassing wealth or is this an interpretation of the text in specific context speaking with the rich man or an applied broader context of other passages but not unique to a specific Greek word?

What do you think Copeland means by his remarks and do you agree with him?

I think if we love our neighbors as ourselves, being rich will be an exception, not the rule.

 

[DamianWarS]

I think if we love our neighbors as ourselves, being rich will be an exception, not the rule.

Perhaps, but how does studying the Greek behind Mat 19:24 inform us of this as Copeland suggests? What you propose is a broad application of scripture that is not unique to Greek or to this text. I'm not picking a fight with Copeland, I just want to know what he means and if I'm missing something?

 

[Dave L]

Perhaps, but how does studying the Greek behind Mat 19:24 inform us of this as Copeland suggests? What you propose is a broad application of scripture that is not unique to Greek or to this text. I'm not picking a fight with Copeland, I just want to know what he means and if I'm missing something?

I think love will not allow treating others less than equal. Since Jesus says all things are possible I need to look for an example of exceptions to the rule.

 

[DamianWarS]

I think love will not allow treating others less than equal. Since Jesus says all things are possible I need to look for an example of exceptions to the rule.

I'm not looking for exceptions, I'm looking to unpack what Copeland says. Copeland offers two explanations, first that all things are possible with God which is clear enough (and satisfactory enough for an exception). Then he says that if you study the greek it actually is talking about putting your trust in money (the inference being not about being rich). I'm not puzzled by the former but rather the latter. Does the Greek in Mat 19:24 uniquely inform us that Christ meant putting your trust in money over being rich as Copeland suggests? If so, how does the Greek inform us of this or where is Copeland getting this idea from?

 

[Dave L]

I'm not looking for exceptions, I'm looking to unpack what Copeland says. Copeland offers two explanations, first that all things are possible with God which is clear enough (and satisfactory enough for an exception). Then he says that if you study the greek it actually is talking about putting your trust in money (the inference being not about being rich). I'm not puzzled by the former but rather that latter. Does the Greek in Mat 19:24 uniquely inform us that Christ meant putting your trust in money over being rich as Copeland suggests? If so, how does the Greek inform us of this or where is Copeland getting this idea from?

I don't think the passage supports Copeland's position when balanced with the rest of scripture.

 

[timewerx]

I think if we love our neighbors as ourselves, being rich will be an exception, not the rule.

I agree! Actually, if everyone is loving one another as themselves, no one will be rich, but more importantly, no one is going to be poor!

Hope will exist even for the blind, lame, weak, and sick.

 

[Handmaid for Jesus]

Ecclesiastes 10:19
A feast is made for laughter, and wine maketh merry: but money answereth all things.

 

[timewerx]

Ecclesiastes 10:19
A feast is made for laughter, and wine maketh merry: but money answereth all things.

As wise as King Solomon is, he still didn't know everything. His wisdom still fails. In fact, many teachings of Christ contradicts the teachings of Solomon.

Consider some of the things Solomon said. Does anyone think this applies to us today?

Ecclesiastes 10:16
Woe to the land whose king was a servant

And Jesus was a servant.

Ecclesiastes 8:2
Obey the king’s command, I say, because you took an oath before God

Jesus said, don't make an oath (Matthew 5:33-37) You don't have to obey a king or an authority in everything, especially if they're asking you to do anything that displeases the Lord.

And of course, Ecclesiastes 10:19
A feast is made for laughter, wine makes life merry, and money is the answer for everything.

And yet Jesus proved that money isn't the answer for everything. He fed a multitude, healed the sick, and changed the world. All it took was faith and obedience to the Father.

 

[DamianWarS]

Ecclesiastes 10:19
A feast is made for laughter, and wine maketh merry: but money answereth all things.

How does this inform us of the meaning Mat 19:24 or what the Greek means when it says "rich" as per the OP

 

[timewerx]

How does this inform us of the meaning Mat 19:24 or what the Greek means when it says "rich" as per the OP

Greek simply means a "rich man".

See Greek Study links of that verse:

Matthew 19:24 Greek Text Analysis

The Greek word used for "rich" in that verse πλούσιος:

Strong's Greek: 4145. πλούσιος (plousios) -- wealthy


So what do you think is going on with Kenneth Copeland??

Nothing in that verse says it's about trusting in wealth, not even in Greek.

 

[Strong in Him]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God.

Not exactly.
The disciples were astonished to hear Jesus say this and asked "who then can be saved?" Jesus replied, "with man, this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." I.E it's impossible for a rich person to save themselves - as it is with all of us - but not impossible for God.

The first commandment is to have no other god except the Lord, and Jesus told us to seek, and put, God first, Matthew 6:33. Anything that comes between us and God - money, possessions, a certain person, our job etc - is an idol.

 

[JIMINZ]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God. And He said, if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

So let's study the Greek behind that and see what it means. Is Copeland right in that the Greek uniquely identifies a trust in money over amassing wealth or is this an interpretation of the text in specific context speaking with the rich man or an applied broader context of other passages but not unique to a specific Greek word?

What do you think Copeland means by his remarks and do you agree with him?

Just trying to give a reasonable answer to the question.

Copeland did not say, the Definition of the word Rich means this or that.

He said, "if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

I understand what he says because I believe the same as well.
My belief is, Jesus was saying that a rich man trusts in his riches, rather than Faith which is what the Kingdom of God is made of.

Therefore, a Rich man has more to lose than a poor man does, but both Rich or Poor the cost it the same you must die to self, that is where the Rich man has more to lose because, he trusts in his riches.

A couple of verses which I believe could be applied for clarity.

Luke 14:28
For which of you, intending to build a tower, sitteth not down first, and counteth the cost, whether he have sufficient to finish it?

Luke 14:31
Or what king, going to make war against another king, sitteth not down first, and consulteth whether he be able with ten thousand to meet him that cometh against him with twenty thousand?

Both of these men sat down first and counted the cost of his actions, is this what is being refereed to by Copeland, the Rich man will count the cost, how much money will I lose, because his trust is in his riches, that is also where his heart is.

Mat. 6:24
No man can serve two masters: for either he will hate the one, and love the other; or else he will hold to the one, and despise the other. Ye cannot serve God and mammon.

MAMMON:
G3126
μαμμωνᾶς
mammōnas
mam-mo-nas'
Of Chaldee origin (confidence, that is, figuratively wealth, personified); mammonas, that is, avarice (deified): - mammon.

 

[DamianWarS]

Not exactly.
The disciples were astonished to hear Jesus say this and asked "who then can be saved?" Jesus replied, "with man, this is impossible, but with God all things are possible." I.E it's impossible for a rich person to save themselves - as it is with all of us - but not impossible for God.

Agreed, but Copeland goes on further to say a study of the greek reveals it's actually talking about "trusting in money" vs amassing wealth. I'm not trying to ridicule him, I'm actually interested if the greek confirms this or what he was basing this on.

 

[DamianWarS]

Therefore, a Rich man has more to lose than a poor man does, but both Rich or Poor the cost it the same you must die to self, that is where the Rich man has more to lose because, he trusts in his riches.

I get this but Copeland's suggestion is uniquely about a study of Greek. Your analyse is not uniquely greek, even the look at the word mammon may be Greek but you don't need to study the greek to come to these conclusions by the phrase "you can't serve two masters" I'm thinking copeland was just caught off guard and mis spoke.

 

[Tom 1]

KC is quoted in his recent impromptu interview after a reporter challenge him with Matthew 19:24 which says "And again I say unto you, It is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to enter into the kingdom of God.”

Copeland agreed, but noted: “but He said, all things are possible with God. And He said, if you studied the Greek behind that, it’s trusting in wealth.”

So let's study the Greek behind that and see what it means. Is Copeland right in that the Greek uniquely identifies a trust in money over amassing wealth or is this an interpretation of the text in specific context speaking with the rich man or an applied broader context of other passages but not unique to a specific Greek word?

What do you think Copeland means by his remarks and do you agree with him?

I suppose he means that although he has a lot of cash he doesn’t trust it. Maybe that’s why he keeps it locked away in a bank?

 

[timewerx]

I suppose he means that although he has a lot of cash he doesn’t trust it. Maybe that’s why he keeps it locked away in a bank?

This is probably the best known example of "institutionalized hypocrisy" in Christianity today.

And when it concerns money, it's not surprising.

Wanna hear another example of this?

- Many Christians will tell you it's okay to reprove a brother or sister of his or her wrong actions - if done out of love.....But when it comes to money or riches, it's mind your own business, don't judge.

You see my point?? It's like you hit a nerve or people get scared to talk about it, turn hostile, and will use every trick in the book, even if foul, trolling to dismiss everything you have to say.

The topic suddenly takes control of people's minds in a bad way. If you're waiting for the Mark of the Beast to come take over people's minds, wait no further, we're already with it for thousands of years!

 

[DamianWarS]

I suppose he means that although he has a lot of cash he doesn’t trust it. Maybe that’s why he keeps it locked away in a bank?

We can infer this is how he approaches money personally and I'm fine with that but it's his claim that by studying the Greek behind the text in question (Mat 19:24) that it actually points to this meaning.

It's not an argument or really even a challenge. A rich evangelist said it and I'm interested in seeing if this is actually true. I didn't see it from my own study, but I thought others might see something I missed. I'm at a place where I don't see the Greek uniquely taking us there and no one here can confirm it so I'm thinking the guy was caught off guard and perhaps confused his scripture.

The crux of the text to me is not that the rich are incompatible with salvation. Jesus told the rich man “If you want to be perfect, go, sell your possessions and give to the poor, and you will have treasure in heaven. Then come, follow me.” There is a bunch of imperatives here that conclude with "follow me". He told the same command to each of the disciples, and they dropped what they were doing and followed him. We may even imagine that his call to the disciples was just as personal as it was with this rich man, cutting to the core first, then saying follow me. Is this not the same with the call for us all? The rich man leaves and the account has us believing he didn't choose to follow Christ which is the larger issue that he choose his wealth over Christ.

Copeland may very well know this and this was his intended meaning but all of this you can plainly get from reading any language and not uniquely informed by studying the Greek behind it. But maybe I'm wrong. perhaps in these imperatives there is a suggestion of putting trust in money (or releasing trust in money). I'll have to examine it further.

 

[Noxot]

I'm not looking for exceptions, I'm looking to unpack what Copeland says. Copeland offers two explanations, first that all things are possible with God which is clear enough (and satisfactory enough for an exception). Then he says that if you study the greek it actually is talking about putting your trust in money (the inference being not about being rich). I'm not puzzled by the former but rather the latter. Does the Greek in Mat 19:24 uniquely inform us that Christ meant putting your trust in money over being rich as Copeland suggests? If so, how does the Greek inform us of this or where is Copeland getting this idea from?

The bible has verses that say how the rich trusting in their riches is bad.