No. Which is why it makes sense that Paul says this in this place, but elsewhere permits women to exercise appropriate leadership.
By answering 'no', you provide the evidence that your church, as with mine, practice a form of order within church worship and are therefore continuing from the basis set by Paul in this chapter. Proving that this basis is universally beneficial.
In verses 1-32, Paul speaks of church order. This is first concluded by Paul showing God's authority on the matter;
'For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.'
Notice again, the plurality of 'churches', but not only that, it says, 'all churches'. Resulting in this being unequivocally useful for all time and in all places as both of our churches today prove.
Once Paul completes this first conclusion with authority, verse 34 to 36 address a different topic within the 'church order' being dealt with, and I must be firm here in stating that your views of these verses applying to this church alone is fundamentally flawed given the now several reasons I have provided.
And then verse 37 which begins 'If any man...'
But also notice, the chapter continues onto a final conclusion with regards to the church order written at the beginning of the chapter. So therefore the verses in 34-36 are surrounded and a part of the whole chapter which is provably useful in all churches and for all time.
If this person had been male, and described in these terms, nobody would dispute the idea that he spoke in church services. The assumption that Phoebe did not, is, I would argue, more of a stretch than the likelihood that she did.
I have thought long on this. And my conclusion is that I am wrong. I still question whether Phebe spoke because 'diakonon' could be a minister and it could be a servant. However, that is beside the point given that, as you would say, Junia, being an apostle, and more especially, Anna, being a prophetess would be somewhat certain to have speaking roles.
So, how do we marry these two in what is 'inerrant scripture'. The only way I see how is that in the early church, with Christ having fewer followers at the time, both women and men were called by grace to spread the gospel. But then, once churches were established and Paul begins his letters, restrictions begin to be implemented. Remember, Paul is writing 1 Corinthians around 54 AD, and whilst the church is hungering and thirsting for the word, it is still in some confusion of practice and there are some home churches still.
As for Therese of Lisieux, is she not the one who wrote so ardently of her desire to be a priest, and asked God to take her life before the age of ordination so that she would not have to live through the grief of her vocation being denied? And indeed, she died one year before the age of ordination to the priesthood.
I think I have covered this verse quite thoroughly and have provided a very reasonable explanation for what may appear contradictory passages. Obviously we have not covered 1 Timothy 2v12 but that too would fit in with the 'restrictions once founded' notion.
People believe all sorts. Millions agree with the incredibly erroneous Catholic church which is so scripturally flawed one does not know where to start. The Jehovah's Witnesses believe Jesus is not God which is not Biblical. And yet individuals feel 'called' to those beliefs and doctrines. The question for each individual, myself included, is whether we are willing and prepared to ' Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.' 2 Timothy 2:15
I also know of male ministers who have not wanted to 'go forward and preach', but they received a calling and declared 'nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done.' Luke 22:42
I would like to discuss free will if would like to? I got a sense from an earlier post that you believed in free will?