Which Reformed writings explain their premise that natural laws can decide Christian claims?

JM

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Reformed makes enough "cherries" that nonReformed, not just Orthodox, commonly note that it takes a naturalistic step away from the supernatural mindset of the 1st century Christians. We are talking about a whole cherry tree, with disenchantment of mysticism from Zwingli on the Eucharist to the new Protestant Study Bibles on Isaiah 53 being cherries.

Agnostics like Taylor whom I cited elsewhere in his book Secular Age have also noted the major contribution Calvin made to disenchantment of Christian ideas and concepts of sanctity.

Even if your claims of Rose were characteristic of Orthodoxy, it in no way contradicts the topic of this thread, the materialistic steps and criticisms of what are in fact early Christian ideas about the supetnatural.

Zwingli changed his view later in life as I have already posted but you ignored that. You do that often as AMR, Albion, and others have pointed out.

Consider the lack of theological thinking in Eastern Europe, that lack of biblical grounding which lead to worst atrocities in human history, when Orthodoxy could not deal with Socialism, Marxism and Communionism. The inability of Orthodoxy to dialogue with other systems of thought, philosophy and religion is demonstrated by history. Orthodoxy simply cannot engage culture and must, as a default, retreat from it.

Quote:

Creeping liberalism. Here is an account from a Lutheran blog that refers to an article written by Orthodox academic and priest Gregory Jensen, who frankly admits the problem:

According to Fr Gregory Jensen, an academic and priest of the 'Orthodox Church in America' (the denomination with Russian immigrant origins that former Lutheran scholar Jaroslav Pelikan joined) Eastern Orthodoxy in North America on the ground - as opposed to how it appears from behind the rose-coloured spectacles of prospective Protestant converts - is rapidly becoming as liberal as the Protestant mainline churches many of those converts are fleeing. So much so that he says the Orthodox Church in all its ethnic branches in the US looks increasingly like 'the Eastern-Rite Mainline'.*

How so? Support for abortion and gay marriage runs disturbingly high among the laity, politicians of Orthodox background publicly support positions which stand in stark contradiction to the Church's moral teaching and priests are 'not effectively communicating the [Christian] moral tradition', thus surrendering the laity to the forces of secularisation and cultural barbarism. Not to mention, and Fr Gregory doesn't, but anyone who keeps a 'weather eye' on the Orthodox Church will know, that the various sexual and financial scandals among the Orthodox hierarchy in the US have clearly demoralised many of the devout clergy and laity.**

Part of the solution, Fr Gregory avers, is for the Orthodox in the West to draw upon the riches of the Western Christian tradition, specifically the Catholic tradition's 'partnership of faith and reason, natural law, and the objective and universal character of Christian morality'. I think he's an insightful and brave man for saying this, because most articulate Orthodox - especially Western converts - that I have come across have a strong animus against the Christian West, with Augustine being their favourite whipping boy. In their eyes the great North African Father is to blame not only for Roman Catholicism but also, by way of reaction, for Luther and hence 'Protestantism' (and in speaking about 'Protestantism' the Orthodox tend to make no distinction between a snake-handling Pentecostal and a confessional Lutheran, thereby only displaying their ignorance of the heritage of the Christian West after the Reformation). But, surely, without a sympathetic Orthodox engagement with Augustine - and indeed with Luther - there is unlikely to be any significant rapprochement between Orthodoxy and the Christian West beyond the usual glad-handing at ecumenical gatherings.

I would also respectfully suggest to Fr Gregory that he not overlook what can be learned from the experience of those confessional churches of the Reformation which have taken a different path from their liberal Protestant cousins. A big part of Orthodoxy's problems, in my view, stem from the reality that it is not actually a 'confessional' church, but a 'big tent' church. The question for Orthodoxy now is just how big is its tent, given that they now have their own vocal and prominent proponents for recognition of the right to abortion, women's ordination and even revision of the church's teaching on homosexuality?

Finally, I think we are witnessing yet another confirmation of Dr Sasse's prescient observation of 50 or so years ago that in the modern world all the great Christian communions will face the same theological problems, without exception. The obvious moral for small 'o' orthodox Western Christians in all of this - especially Lutherans - who might think that Constantinople offers a safe haven from the destructive winds of modernism that have wrought such havoc in our own churches, is to look before you leap into the Bosphorus.

Fr Jensen's reflection can be found here


More can be read here.

Thank you.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
 
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rakovsky

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Zwingli changed his view later in life as I have already posted but you ignored that. You do that often as AMR, Albion, and others have pointed out.
Hello, JM.
If Zwingli changed his view and clearly accepted the direct presence of Jesus in the food on the table itself, it would be quite interesting for me, alet hough I simply don't remember you posting something like that.

I do somewhat remember Hedrick from PCUSA arguing that Calvin's and Zwinglis views on the Eucharistic ritual were effectively the same because the believer has a relationship to Christ in heaven in both cases.

The stuff you write in this thread about Orthodoxy is worthy in its own right, but it's a different topic for a different thread, since this thread is about the essence and further development of naturalism in the Reformed movement and thinking, something scholars ranging from Lutherans to secularist agnostics have noted.
 
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rakovsky

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Zwingli would go no further than scripture, his view came more in line with Calvin, that's all I meant.
JM,
Since scripture never specifically denies that Jesus is actually in bread or actually resurrected, are those who say that Jesus is only in the bread symbolically or only resurrected symbolically going further than scripture?

The Lutheran answer is that the Bible says that Jesus is in bread so they accept it, while some Anglicans like NT Wright say that the answer is not clear on this question of whether Jesus is actually in the food.

Calvin's answer was that it is "absurd" for Jesus to be in bread, therefore He is not. However the Bible never says that this is absurd, but rather naturalistic Reason says it. In following naturalism beyond what the Bible said on the topic, were Calvin and Zwingli going beyond the Bible?
 
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JM

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Since scripture never specifically denies that Jesus is actually in bread

Oh but scripture does deny that God takes the form of bread and that's where we disagree. John 6 denies Christ is physical bread in many, many ways. Jesus fed the people physically and they followed Him looking for a meal instead of seeing the miracles He performed as confirming His office. He told them to stop looking for physical food for that is not what the miracles were about, that He is the bread of life, and if you partake of Christ spiritually you will be spiritually satisfied. They would live forever since we are reconciled back to the Father through Christ's mediation...not because He is bread.

“It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”

We find in divine revelation that Christ is the express image of God, no other form is revealed to man, we seek Christ and Christ alone.

The Lutheran answer is that the Bible says that Jesus is in bread so they accept it,

It can be demonstrated from scripture otherwise. The Lutheran church never really followed through with reforming their traditions to scripture. Consider the changes made to Martin Luther’s soteriology (see Bondage of the Will) by Philip Melanchthon and you will start to see that “Lutheranism” is really “Melanchtonism.”

while some Anglicans like NT Wright say that the answer is not clear on this question of whether Jesus is actually in the food.

If I quote “Brother Nathanael” the notorious anti-Semite, who believes Orthodox Tradition sustains his views, (also see the historical origins of the how serious would you take my inquiry? Wright, and much of Anglicanism, has strayed from their biblical moorings.

Calvin's answer was that it is "absurd" for Jesus to be in bread, therefore He is not.

Already discussed.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
 
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rakovsky

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Oh but scripture does deny that God takes the form of bread and that's where we disagree. John 6 denies Christ is physical bread in many, many ways. Jesus fed the people physically and they followed Him looking for a meal instead of seeing the miracles He performed as confirming His office. He told them to stop looking for physical food for that is not what the miracles were about, that He is the bread of life, and if you partake of Christ spiritually you will be spiritually satisfied. They would live forever since we are reconciled back to the Father through Christ's mediation...not because He is bread.

“It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”

We find in divine revelation that Christ is the express image of God, no other form is revealed to man, we seek Christ and Christ alone.



It can be demonstrated from scripture otherwise. The Lutheran church never really followed through with reforming their traditions to scripture. Consider the changes made to Martin Luther’s soteriology (see Bondage of the Will) by Philip Melanchthon and you will start to see that “Lutheranism” is really “Melanchtonism.”



If I quote “Brother Nathanael” the notorious anti-Semite, who believes Orthodox Tradition sustains his views, (also see the historical origins of the how serious would you take my inquiry? Wright, and much of Anglicanism, has strayed from their biblical moorings.



Already discussed.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
Nothing you have just quoted directly or explicitly stated that Christ's body was not actually in the bread, just as nothing the agnostics quote ever says directly that Jesus did not actually resurrect.

Jesus never actually told them to stop eating physical food, because that would literally starve them. Even Calvin agreed in his commentary on John 6 that THE FLESH PROFITETH NOTHING is not a reference to JESUS' flesh, because Jesus' flesh did profit mankind. Jesus' flesh took on spirit form as Luther explained, and Calvin agreed that believers actually consumed Jesus' actual body in heaven. Calvin just didn't think Jesus was in the bread because that would be "absurd".
Calvin did not show how as a matter of LITERARY ANALYSIS JESUS' BODY CANNOT be in bread. Only as a matter of nature based common sense or Reason this is "absurd" as he explained in his letter on Westphal.
 
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rakovsky

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Nothing you have just quoted directly or explicitly stated that Christ's body was not actually in the bread, just as nothing the agnostics quote ever says directly that Jesus did not actually resurrect.

Jesus never actually told them to stop eating physical food, because that would literally starve them. Even Calvin agreed in his commentary on John 6 that THE FLESH PROFITETH NOTHING is not a reference to JESUS' flesh, because Jesus' flesh did profit mankind. Jesus' flesh took on spirit form as Luther explained, and Calvin agreed that believers actually consumed Jesus' actual body in heaven. Calvin just didn't think Jesus was in the bread because that would be "absurd".
Calvin did not show how as a matter of LITERARY ANALYSIS JESUS' BODY CANNOT be in bread. Only as a matter of nature based common sense or Reason this is "absurd" as he explained in his letter on Westphal.

Basically modern era post-1500 Reformed and modern spiritualists want to say that they are thinking biblically and don't want to say that Jesus is actually in bread or resurrected physically, respectively. So they say that that these thing are only "spiritually" true. They don't actually take the teachings head on in the supernatural mindset of the 1st century Christians for which these supernatural beliefs were not "absurd".
 
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JM

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Nothing you have just quoted directly or explicitly stated that Christ's body was not actually in the bread, just as nothing the agnostics quote ever says directly that Jesus did not actually resurrect.

Knowledge gathered from revelation is still knowledge, "we reason from the impossibility of the contrary." Since scripture is crystalline what you propose is impossible.

"A truth is not necessary, because we negatively are not able to conceive the actual existence of the opposite thereof; but a truth is necessary when we positively are able to apprehend that the negation thereof includes an inevitable contradiction. It is not that we cannot see how the opposite comes to be true, but it is that we are able to see that that the opposite cannot possibly be true." (Systematic Theology, sect. 1, chap. 6, lect. 8[1]).
Scriptural reasoning disallows your mystical understanding...which, when you look at history with an unbiased eye, you'll find does not support your view.

A fellow poster on CF has already discussed this using writings from the early church:

"Chrysostom’s view of the Eucharist is not in line with that of many modern thinkers. This can be proven in two ways.

  1. Chrysostom affirms the Real Presence of Jesus Christ in the elements.
  2. Chrysostom affirms that the Eucharist is a memorial and nowhere teaches it serves another function, such as forgiving sins.
In our study, we look at Chrysostom’s homilies on several books of the Scripture (specifically the Gospel of Matthew, 1 Corinthians, and Hebrews) to derive a doctrine of the Eucharist in Chrysostom’s own words. We do not use the Liturgy of Saint Chrysostom, simply because he did not write it."

Source

Calvin did not show how as a matter of LITERARY ANALYSIS JESUS' BODY CANNOT be in bread.

No, Jesus did.

Yours in the Lord,

j
 
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JM

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Basically modern era post-1500 Reformed and modern spiritualists want to say that they are thinking biblically and don't want to say that Jesus is actually in bread or resurrected physically, respectively. So they say that that these thing are only "spiritually" true. They don't actually take the teachings head on in the supernatural mindset of the 1st century Christians for which these supernatural beliefs were not "absurd".

More from Craig's blog covering this ridicules claim.

"Chrysostom’s view of exactly how the Eucharist is a memorial.
A good background to Chrysostom’s view of the Eucharist as a remembrance can be seen in his discussion of the subject in his homilies on Hebrews. In order to follow the logic of the discussion, we need to start in chapter nine.

Nor yet that He should offer Himself often, as the High Priest enters into the Holy place every year with blood of others. Seest Thou how many are the differences? The often for the once; the blood of others, for His own. Great is the distance. He is Himself then both victim and Priest and sacrifice. For if it had not been so, and it had been necessary to offer many sacrifices, He must have been many times crucified. For then, he says, He must often have suffered since the foundation of the world (Heb 9:26).

The comments on Heb 9:26 make clear that Jesus offered a single sacrifice, in time in contrast with the endless sacrifices of the Jews.

And what is [the meaning of] He bare the sins? Just as in the Oblation we bear up our sins and say, Whether we have sinned voluntarily or involuntarily, do Thou forgive, that is, we make mention of them first, and then ask for their forgiveness. So also was it done here. Where has Christ done this? Hear Himself saying, “And for their sakes I sanctify Myself.” John 17:19 Lo! He bore the sins. He took them from men, and bore them to the Father; not that He might determine anything against them [mankind], but that He might forgive them (Heb 9:28).

The comments on Heb 9:28 pertaining to “bare the sins” reveal a great deal of what Chrysostom believed about the Eucharist. One “bares” sins by bringing them to the Father, simply by asking for forgiveness. Man does this while holding the cup, appealing to the Father through Christ’s sacrifice. Our model in doing this is Jesus, who prayed to the Father that He sanctifies Himself “for their sakes.” The whole sanctifying oneself part may not seem like an appeal to His sacrifice, but Chrysostom explicitly views it this way. When commenting on John 17:19 he writes, “What is, ‘I sanctify Myself?’ I offer to You a sacrifice.”
This sacrifice (he says) is one; whereas the others were many: therefore they had no strength, because they were many. For, tell me, what need of many, if one had been sufficient? So that their being many, and offered continually, proves that they [the worshipers] were never made clean (Heb 10:2).

Any sacrifice that has to be repeated does not have efficacy, according the Chrysostom.
When commenting on Hebrews 10:2-9, Chrysostom looks back again to Heb 9:26 (“He has appeared once…by the sacrifice of Himself):
He has appeared by the sacrifice of Himself (he says), that is, He has appeared, unto God, and drawn near [unto Him]. For do not [think] because the High Priest was wont to do this oftentimes in the year….On this account He ordained offerings continually, because of their want of power, and that a remembrance of sins might be made.

So, a repeat in sacrifice was not in order to forgive more sins, but to bring to remembrance the sins we commit that require forgiveness.

What then? Do not we offer every day? We offer indeed, but making a remembrance of His death, and this [remembrance] is one and not many. How is it one, and not many? Inasmuch as that [Sacrifice] was once for all offered, [and] carried into the Holy of Holies. This is a figure of that [sacrifice] and this remembrance of that."

Source cited above.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
 
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rakovsky

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Knowledge gathered from revelation is still knowledge, "we reason from the impossibility of the contrary." Since scripture is crystalline what you propose is impossible.
You propose scripture is crystalline and yet IIRC you do not agree with Calvin and the Westminster Confession on infant baptism. Please correct me if I am wrong about that.

The fact is, the scripture never specifies that infant baptism is wrong or that Jesus is not in Eucharist food when He says that he is. Nor have you produced any statements from the Bible specifically and directly contrary.
 
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rakovsky

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More from Craig's blog covering this ridicules claim.

"Chrysostom’s view of exactly how the Eucharist is a memorial.
A good background to Chrysostom’s view of the Eucharist as a remembrance can be seen in his discussion of the subject in his homilies on Hebrews. In order to follow the logic of the discussion, we need to start in chapter nine.

Nor yet that He should offer Himself often, as the High Priest enters into the Holy place every year with blood of others. Seest Thou how many are the differences? The often for the once; the blood of others, for His own. Great is the distance. He is Himself then both victim and Priest and sacrifice. For if it had not been so, and it had been necessary to offer many sacrifices, He must have been many times crucified. For then, he says, He must often have suffered since the foundation of the world (Heb 9:26).

The comments on Heb 9:26 make clear that Jesus offered a single sacrifice, in time in contrast with the endless sacrifices of the Jews.

And what is [the meaning of] He bare the sins? Just as in the Oblation we bear up our sins and say, Whether we have sinned voluntarily or involuntarily, do Thou forgive, that is, we make mention of them first, and then ask for their forgiveness. So also was it done here. Where has Christ done this? Hear Himself saying, “And for their sakes I sanctify Myself.” John 17:19 Lo! He bore the sins. He took them from men, and bore them to the Father; not that He might determine anything against them [mankind], but that He might forgive them (Heb 9:28).

The comments on Heb 9:28 pertaining to “bare the sins” reveal a great deal of what Chrysostom believed about the Eucharist. One “bares” sins by bringing them to the Father, simply by asking for forgiveness. Man does this while holding the cup, appealing to the Father through Christ’s sacrifice. Our model in doing this is Jesus, who prayed to the Father that He sanctifies Himself “for their sakes.” The whole sanctifying oneself part may not seem like an appeal to His sacrifice, but Chrysostom explicitly views it this way. When commenting on John 17:19 he writes, “What is, ‘I sanctify Myself?’ I offer to You a sacrifice.”
This sacrifice (he says) is one; whereas the others were many: therefore they had no strength, because they were many. For, tell me, what need of many, if one had been sufficient? So that their being many, and offered continually, proves that they [the worshipers] were never made clean (Heb 10:2).

Any sacrifice that has to be repeated does not have efficacy, according the Chrysostom.
When commenting on Hebrews 10:2-9, Chrysostom looks back again to Heb 9:26 (“He has appeared once…by the sacrifice of Himself):
He has appeared by the sacrifice of Himself (he says), that is, He has appeared, unto God, and drawn near [unto Him]. For do not [think] because the High Priest was wont to do this oftentimes in the year….On this account He ordained offerings continually, because of their want of power, and that a remembrance of sins might be made.

So, a repeat in sacrifice was not in order to forgive more sins, but to bring to remembrance the sins we commit that require forgiveness.

What then? Do not we offer every day? We offer indeed, but making a remembrance of His death, and this [remembrance] is one and not many. How is it one, and not many? Inasmuch as that [Sacrifice] was once for all offered, [and] carried into the Holy of Holies. This is a figure of that [sacrifice] and this remembrance of that."

Source cited above.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
More from Craig's blog covering this ridicules claim.

"Chrysostom’s view of exactly how the Eucharist is a memorial.
A good background to Chrysostom’s view of the Eucharist as a remembrance can be seen in his discussion of the subject in his homilies on Hebrews. In order to follow the logic of the discussion, we need to start in chapter nine.

Nor yet that He should offer Himself often, as the High Priest enters into the Holy place every year with blood of others. Seest Thou how many are the differences? The often for the once; the blood of others, for His own. Great is the distance. He is Himself then both victim and Priest and sacrifice. For if it had not been so, and it had been necessary to offer many sacrifices, He must have been many times crucified. For then, he says, He must often have suffered since the foundation of the world (Heb 9:26).

The comments on Heb 9:26 make clear that Jesus offered a single sacrifice, in time in contrast with the endless sacrifices of the Jews.

And what is [the meaning of] He bare the sins? Just as in the Oblation we bear up our sins and say, Whether we have sinned voluntarily or involuntarily, do Thou forgive, that is, we make mention of them first, and then ask for their forgiveness. So also was it done here. Where has Christ done this? Hear Himself saying, “And for their sakes I sanctify Myself.” John 17:19 Lo! He bore the sins. He took them from men, and bore them to the Father; not that He might determine anything against them [mankind], but that He might forgive them (Heb 9:28).

The comments on Heb 9:28 pertaining to “bare the sins” reveal a great deal of what Chrysostom believed about the Eucharist. One “bares” sins by bringing them to the Father, simply by asking for forgiveness. Man does this while holding the cup, appealing to the Father through Christ’s sacrifice. Our model in doing this is Jesus, who prayed to the Father that He sanctifies Himself “for their sakes.” The whole sanctifying oneself part may not seem like an appeal to His sacrifice, but Chrysostom explicitly views it this way. When commenting on John 17:19 he writes, “What is, ‘I sanctify Myself?’ I offer to You a sacrifice.”
This sacrifice (he says) is one; whereas the others were many: therefore they had no strength, because they were many. For, tell me, what need of many, if one had been sufficient? So that their being many, and offered continually, proves that they [the worshipers] were never made clean (Heb 10:2).

Any sacrifice that has to be repeated does not have efficacy, according the Chrysostom.
When commenting on Hebrews 10:2-9, Chrysostom looks back again to Heb 9:26 (“He has appeared once…by the sacrifice of Himself):
He has appeared by the sacrifice of Himself (he says), that is, He has appeared, unto God, and drawn near [unto Him]. For do not [think] because the High Priest was wont to do this oftentimes in the year….On this account He ordained offerings continually, because of their want of power, and that a remembrance of sins might be made.

So, a repeat in sacrifice was not in order to forgive more sins, but to bring to remembrance the sins we commit that require forgiveness.

What then? Do not we offer every day? We offer indeed, but making a remembrance of His death, and this [remembrance] is one and not many. How is it one, and not many? Inasmuch as that [Sacrifice] was once for all offered, [and] carried into the Holy of Holies. This is a figure of that [sacrifice] and this remembrance of that."

Source cited above.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
It sounds like you are saying that for Jesus to be in food he has to be killed each time a mass happens. But that is not the EO or Lutheran view.

You also seem to object to EOs calling the mass a sacrifice. But sacrifice can mean different things, either a bloody sacrifice or a donation like sacrificing our lives to God as Paul says in Romans. This article explains a bit:

http://jimmyakin.com/jesus-once-for-all-sacrifice
EOs say it is not a bloody sacrifice.

So like I said, the Bible never says Jesus is not in food when He says that he is, and His being present someplace doesn't mean he gets rekilled or something weird like that.
 
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JM

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You propose scripture is crystalline and yet IIRC you do not agree with Calvin and the Westminster Confession on infant baptism. Please correct me if I am wrong about that.

The fact is, the scripture never specifies that infant baptism is wrong or that Jesus is not in Eucharist food when He says that he is. Nor have you produced any statements from the Bible specifically and directly contrary.

Scripture is clear, tradition muddles it.

Now you are just being annoying and throwing out red herrings.

Yours in Christ who saves to the uttermost.

jm
 
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JM

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It sounds like you are saying that for Jesus to be in food he has to be killed each time a mass happens. But that is not the EO or Lutheran view.

That is the RC view, that during Mass Christ is re-offered to God, every time Mass is offered.

You also seem to object to EOs calling the mass a sacrifice. But sacrifice can mean different things, either a bloody sacrifice or a donation like sacrificing our lives to God as Paul says in Romans.

The point is...what? You are disagreeing with Romanism?

So like I said, the Bible never says Jesus is not in food when He says that he is, and His being present someplace doesn't mean he gets rekilled or something weird like that.

This isn't the EO forum but I'll ask you to demonstrate that Jesus turns into bread and wine, two separate elements at the same time, with scripture.

Yours,

jm
 
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rakovsky

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Knowledge gathered from revelation is still knowledge, "we reason from the impossibility of the contrary." Since scripture is crystalline what you propose is impossible.
Scripture is clear, tradition muddles it.
Well, then you have the fact that "Orthodox Presbyterianism" as expressed in the Westminster Confession and by Calvin, teaches infant baptism and claims that it is "scriptural" and reasons from the impossibility of the contrary.

IV. Not only those that do actually profess faith in and obedience unto Christ,[11] but also the infants of one, or both, believing parents, are to be baptized.[12]
Westminster Confession.


Westminster Confession citations for #12 above:
1CO 7:14 For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.
MAT 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.
MAR 10:13 And they brought young children to him, that he should touch them: and his disciples rebuked those that brought them. 14 But when Jesus saw it, he was much displeased, and said unto them, Suffer the little children to come unto me, and forbid them not: for of such is the kingdom of God. 15 Verily I say unto you, Whosoever shall not receive the kingdom of God as a little child, he shall not enter therein. 16 And he took them up in his arms, put his hands upon them, and blessed them. LUK 18:15 And they brought unto him also infants, that he would touch them: but when his disciples saw it, they rebuked them.
http://www.reformed.org/documents/w...ody=/documents/wcf_with_proofs/ch_XXVIII.html

If you go to the Semper Reformanda "Sticky" threads for defining "Reformed", it links to the documents on the website above (reformed.org).

Is Infant Baptism Scriptural?
John Murray
From The Presbyterian Guardian, volume 5 (1938).
...
It so happens that circumcision signified basically the same thing as baptism. That baptism signifies purification from the defilement of sin by the regeneration of the Spirit and purification from the guilt of sin by the righteousness of Christ -- the righteousness of faith -- appears on the very face of the New Testament. That, we have found already, is the real meaning of circumcision. There is, therefore, a basic identity of meaning and signification. Circumcision, bearing the same basic meaning as baptism, was administered to infants who were born in the covenant relation and privilege flowing from the covenant made with Abraham.
...

The Covenant Sign Perpetual

We already found that the gospel dispensation is in accordance with, and in pursuance of, the covenant made with Abraham. He, Abraham, is the father of all the faithful. They that are of faith are blessed with faithful Abraham. Now if children born of believing parents under the older dispensation were given the covenant sign, a covenant sign that bears the same central meaning as does baptism, are we to believe that infants are excluded from the covenant sign and seal under the New Testament?
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Invalid Objections

The opponents of infant baptism are wont to appeal to the fact that there is no express command to baptize infants and that we do not have in the New Testament an explicit and proven case of infant baptism. The answer to such an objection is apparent. In view of the basis on which, by divine authority, the inclusion of the infant seed in the reception of the covenant sign rests, an express command or a concrete case is unnecessary.
http://www.westminsterconfession.org/worship/is-infant-baptism-scriptural.php

If Scripture was "crystalline" and "clear" on these questions, allegedly unlike Tradition, as you propose, then I think that you, as an intelligent person, and the Westminster Confession, compiled by sincere Reformed, would be in agreement on such a basic scriptural question.

If "reasoning from the contrary" makes a teaching not expressed explicitly in the Bible to be "scriptural", then "reasoning from the contrary" as used to decide the question of infant baptism means that the "scriptural" position on the question is unclear and not "crystalline".

As the Presbyterian Gazette explains, infants are not cut out from Yahweh's old covenant with Abraham, and this is a perpetual covenant into which Christians are grafted, so "reasoning from the contrary", Christian infants can also enjoy this covenant.
 
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rakovsky

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This isn't the EO forum but I'll ask you to demonstrate that Jesus turns into bread and wine, two separate elements at the same time, with scripture.
The larger point is that Zwingli and Calvin differed from the explicit text of scripture on the real presence in bread, "Take eat, this is my body". The Lutherans accept the direct meaning as a matter of literary analysis (ie. in the New Testament "is" does not mean "signifies" as a matter of grammar when Jesus pointed to real physical objects), while the Anglicans are collectively ambivalent about whether it is taken symbolically or literally.

Calvin and Zwingli however used reasoning beyond the text itself when they explained naturalistically why they believed that it was NOT actually his body. Even if a skeptic accepts the reasoning that it is IMPOSSIBLE for Jesus to be in bread, the skeptic's reasoning goes beyond what is in scripture, as scripture never says that this is IMPOSSIBLE.

You also seem to object to EOs calling the mass a sacrifice. But sacrifice can mean different things, either a bloody sacrifice or a donation like sacrificing our lives to God as Paul says in Romans.

The point is...what? You are disagreeing with Romanism?
If RC-ism actually teaches that the mass is a bloody sacrifice whereby Jesus is killed each time a mass happens, then of course I would disagree with Romanism on this. But I believe that you misunderstand RC-ism on this point, just as you have misunderstood Lutheran and Orthodox belief in the real presence.

Thus, by virtue of the consecration, the species of bread and wine re-present (50) in a sacramental, unbloody manner the bloody propitiatory sacrifice [singular] offered by Him on the cross to His Father for the salvation of the world.
Source:
star.gif
Pope John Paul II, letter Dominicae Cenae - On the Mystery and Worship of the Eucharist, February 24, 1980.
If you look closely, a singular bloody sacrifice was offered by Jesus and the sacrifice is presented again during the mass. This does not mean as a matter of logic that Jesus is killed again. But that was the common Reformed misunderstanding, namely that if the mass is called a "sacrifice" and Jesus' body is there, then it must mean he is killed again or something weird like that. This misunderstanding confuses the meanings of "sacrifice". It would be like non-Christians objecting that when Paul said to "sacrifice" our lives to God, Paul must have simply meant to get killed violently by enemies like Jesus did. But that is not what Paul meant in Romans or what the RCs mean about the Eucharist being a sacrifice.

The real reason Reformed might make this mistaken objection about sacrifice is because they don't believe that the real presence in food is possible and so they react to it as an offensive weird belief of cannibalism. That's the same thing Jesus' ex-disciples thought about Jesus' teaching in John 6. As Reformed commentaries explain, the ex-disciples' answer was practically "Yes" to Jesus' question "Does this [His teaching on eating His flesh] offend you?"

One explanation for me is that Jesus was saying that you do "eat" and "chew" Jesus' flesh (Jesus used both words in John 6), but on the other, His flesh had become "spirit", as he taught elsewhere in John about being born of Spirit and how in the afterlife we become like the angels. Plus, Paul talked about us getting spirit bodies.
 
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JM

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Rak, I will respond later but must warn you now, again, that you are arguing and not asking a question. You are avoiding the obvious, ignoring what I have posted and created more than a few red herrings. For example, when I mentioned that baptism was off topic and was not apart of the op or discussion you created a post about baptism. This is a good example of a red herring. I will return with a response but if you continue to argue you will be reported...they gave me no quarter in the St. Justin's Forum, you'll get no more here.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
 
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rakovsky

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Rak, I will respond later but must warn you now, again, that you are arguing and not asking a question. You are avoiding the obvious, ignoring what I have posted and created more than a few red herrings. For example, when I mentioned that baptism was off topic and was not apart of the op or discussion you created a post about baptism. This is a good example of a red herring. I will return with a response but if you continue to argue you will be reported...they gave me no quarter in the St. Justin's Forum, you'll get no more here.

Yours in the Lord,

jm
Hello, JM.

The question in the OP is whether Reformed theologians have explained the basis for their materialistic reasoning in rejecting numerous supernatural Christian teachings handed down by their predecessors. Many scholars and theologians from Lutherans to EOs to modern agnostics have noted this strain in Reformed thought.
It includes:
  • Whether the title of Psalm 22 mystically/prophetically refers to Christ or if we take what Calvin calls a "simple, natural meaning" that it doesn't.
  • The continued use of holy oil for blessings or miracles like we read about in the NT
  • Whether Jesus is directly in the food itself in the Eucharist
  • Whether saints' bones, presence, or clothes can be involved in miracles
  • Whether the moving spiritual rock in 1 Cor 10 was a direct reference to Jesus or was a stream because rocks don't move
  • The materialistic implications of Calvin's system of supralapsarian Predestination and TULIP
  • Whether demoniacs in the Bible were possessed by real demon beings.
  • Whether exorcisms are still to be performed like they were in Biblical times and in the centuries afterwards
  • Whether the Turin Shroud, a relic, can help tell us about Jesus, even if it is a relic

The issue of baptism is relevant because when I was researching the issue several months ago I found one Protestant scholar who compared the Lutheran and Reformed views on Baptism. He found that Lutheranism, like the RC and EO models, does not rely as much on reason, and in reason's role in salvation. At one point in the gospel, Jesus healed and saved people who were not present with the help of their relatives. For the Reformed movement, as the scholar explained, Reason is much more important, so in the Reformed scheme, a person needs to consciously formulate the beliefs of salvation. This emphasis on Rationalism and Reason helps explain why an outgrowth of the Reformed movement has come to deny Infant Baptism, as infants do not have the conscious, rational formulation of the beliefs of salvation, like a conscious formulation and acknowledgment of Jesus of Nazareth's saving actions in 1st century Judea, His atoning death and resurrection.

The issue of infant baptism is also relevant because that is where our discussion led.
As I understand your answer to the OP, your position is that the pattern of Reformed teachings (eg. on the Eucharist) has absolutely nothing to do with naturalistic skepticism of older teachings, and is only a matter of strict literary reading of the Bible, which you consider to be "crystalline". In order to see whether that is the case, I asked you about the controversy among Reformed on Infant Baptism. If in fact the Reformed positions are just a matter of crystal clear reading of the Bible, then why do conservative Reformed teach Infant Baptism?

Your answer appears to be that this is just arguing on my part and unrelated. Of course, whether Reformed can agree on what the Bible says on major issues like Infant Baptism is a very related question to whether the Bible is in fact "crystal clear" to them. If however you consider such questions about your position "arguing", it's OK. Simply please let me know that in your next message, so that rather than pursue it further, I will just consider it your final answer and put any follow ups in the Debate Section.
 
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JM

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Well, then you have the fact that "Orthodox Presbyterianism" as expressed in the Westminster Confession and by Calvin, teaches infant baptism and claims that it is "scriptural" and reasons from the impossibility of the contrary.

Without knowledge of the debates that raged during the 17th century your comments seem glib. The principle of “sola scriptura” and “semper reformanda” were the ideal, to use the revealed will of God alone to reform our lives and doctrine. You would make similar claims for the Eastern Orthodox church, that as a member of that denomination you would seek to reform your life in accordance with their principles, not scriptural principles, but principles no less. As the church lived out it’s mission in the world the issue of baptism became a hot topic since, and you must agree, no passage of scripture gives positive command to “baptize” infants. You are creating a false separation between our Reformed churches when you claim how one practices baptism is a theological divide. No one in the Reformed church paedo or credo, will claim baptism is salvific.

If you go to the Semper Reformanda "Sticky" threads for defining "Reformed", it links to the documents on the website above (reformed.org).

The sticky was under review last time I chatted with a mod and they were moving to include Reformed Baptists since, after all, our position is found in the early church and during the hot debates of the 17th century when the Westminster defined its stance on covenantal baptism. Even the Anglicans had their credobaptists. The flag ship study Bible put out by Sproul’s ministry includes Reformed Baptist documents which is a good sign that paedos view creados as orthodox in terms of the Christian faith.

If Scripture was "crystalline…

Now who is the rationalist looking for absolute certainty? The problem is, the Eastern Christian shifts his rational appeal to authority from the scriptures to the governmental system of the Eastern Orthodox denomination. Scripture is clear, sinners are not, but that doesn’t mean scripture should not or does not function as the final authority for which we appeal. Unlike “holy” tradition, whatever that is…you cannot define it, scripture is static. It’s role is secure. Your argument boils down to, “since I cannot know I must subject to others who pretend to know” without qualification. This is escapism.

The larger point is that Zwingli and Calvin differed from the explicit text of scripture on the real presence in bread, "Take eat, this is my body".


I have already shown that Zwingli changed his position later in life and you choose to ignore it. Schaff was correct when he wrote, “Luther proceeded anthropologically and soteriologically from man to God, Zwingli and Calvin proceeded theologically from God to man.” Zwingli and Calvin both rejected the traditions that promoted Sacerdotalism.


The Lutherans accept the direct meaning as a matter of literary analysis (ie. in the New Testament "is" does not mean "signifies" as a matter of grammar when Jesus pointed to real physical objects), while the Anglicans are collectively ambivalent about whether it is taken symbolically or literally.


Let’s look at the scriptural text you seem to think is in reference to eating God transformed into bread? You have been challenged twice now and you have retreated to sophistry.

Calvin and Zwingli however used reasoning beyond the text itself when they explained naturalistically why they believed that it was NOT actually his body. Even if a skeptic accepts the reasoning that it is IMPOSSIBLE for Jesus to be in bread, the skeptic's reasoning goes beyond what is in scripture, as scripture never says that this is IMPOSSIBLE.


Please, post the text you believe teaches Christ changes into bread and we eat Him. You are just using debate tricks to inflate your posts.


If RC-ism actually teaches that the mass is a bloody sacrifice whereby Jesus is killed each time a mass happens, then of course I would disagree with Romanism on this. But I believe that you misunderstand RC-ism on this point, just as you have misunderstood Lutheran and Orthodox belief in the real presence.

Actually, the Eastern Orthodox agrees with Rome, or they did. During the 17th century at a Pan-Orthodox Council (authoritative but not binding) translated the Latin word transubstantiation into Greek to bring it more in line with Romanism.

If you look closely, a singular bloody sacrifice was offered by Jesus and the sacrifice is presented again during the mass.


Scripture declares that Christ offered Himself once (passage related to the institution of the Lord’s Supper, Hebrews) and sat down at the right hand of the Father. (see Hebrews) Not that Christ offered Himself once, sat down and will now avail Himself physically in the form of bread and wine upon altars of churches all over the world simultaneously.


The real reason Reformed might make this mistaken objection about sacrifice is because they don't believe that the real presence…


We do. We have defined it differently than you so now, instead of recogniznig it, you create a strawman so that you may argue.


…in food is possible and so they react to it as an offensive weird belief of cannibalism. That's the same thing Jesus' ex-disciples thought about Jesus' teaching in John 6. As Reformed commentaries explain, the ex-disciples' answer was practically "Yes" to Jesus' question "Does this [His teaching on eating His flesh] offend you?" One explanation for me is that Jesus was saying that you do "eat" and "chew" Jesus' flesh (Jesus used both words in John 6), but on the other, His flesh had become "spirit", as he taught elsewhere in John about being born of Spirit and how in the afterlife we become like the angels. Plus, Paul talked about us getting spirit bodies.

In John 6 we find the Jews displaying a propensity toward carnality. Why did they follow Christ? It was, “because ye did eat…” Jesus turns their desire for food into spiritual food. This is what most Protestants do, we allow Christ to teach, instead of performing eisegesis. Not one verse can, in context, support the idea Eastern Orthodox teach. In fact Christ links true spiritual nourishment to faith in Him, “I am the bread of life: he that cometh to me shall never hunger; and he that believeth on me shall never thirst.” This teaching is what the Jews found unacceptable with the immediate context (v.35-51) supporting it. Christ said, “I am the bread of life” with “He that believeth on me shall never thrust.” Belief and not physical eating is in sight. The rebuttal from those listening was not a citation from Leviticus or Deuteronomy about cannibalism, no “and they said, is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know?” The crowd never thought for a second that Christ was claiming you had to eat Him, over and over and over and over and over and over and over and over again to never thirst. They rejected Him as mediator and Incarnate God. One who came from heaven. Christ explained the mind of the Jew that followed after Him, “I say unto you, ye seek me, not because ye saw the miracles, but because ye did eat…” and this is way they ask, “How can this man give us his flesh to eat?” They were looking for a meal, Christ tells them He isn’t here just to give them a meal but, “he that believeth on me hath everlasting life.” That wasn’t what the crowd wanted to hear, they wanted to be feed so Christ used the miracle as an illustration that pointed them to reliance in Him through faith alone. Remember, the Jews “murmured” when Christ declared His role as mediator of spiritual food and they continued in their unbelief throughout the rest of the chapter.

James White on verse 32, “There is also another parallel (but an incomplete one, of course) - just as the manna came down from heaven and provided sustenance for the people of God during their sojourn, so too Jesus has come down out of heaven to be the sustenance of God’s people - and their salvation. Jesus will utilize this kind of dualistic symbolism throughout this discourse - referring to the physical reality of the manna to represent the spiritual reality of faith in Him. Sadly enough, this dualism has been missed by the Roman church, which reads into this passage their own erroneous doctrine of transubstantiation in the mass - and in so doing they reverse the very direction the Lord is taking the conversation. They, like the first century listeners, cannot see past the symbol to the reality beyond.”

James White on verse 47, “This faith is a personal one, because it involves the “eating” of this true bread - which is Jesus Himself (v. 51). The eating of the true bread means eternal life, and this bread, Jesus says, is His flesh “which is given for the life of the world.” it is not Jesus’ flesh, per se, which is the object here - it is His flesh as given in sacrifice which brings eternal life. It is the sacrifice that gives life, not simply the flesh. In His giving of His life, the Son provides life for the world. The context again demands a strict interpretation of “world”. John uses kosmos in many different ways, but here it is clear that the kosmos is just those who are drawn by the Father, given by the Father to the Son, and who respond by faith in the Son. Consistency demands the continued emphasis on this group.”

James White on verse 53, “Jesus decides to come down to their level in an attempt to bring them up to His. He moves on with the metaphor, already firmly established, of “eating = believing”. The only way to eternal life is through union with the Son of Man. This involves a vital faith relationship with Him, symbolized here by the eating of His flesh and the drinking of His blood. To make the equation complete. Jesus places “eating My flesh and drinking My blood” in the exact same position as hearing His word and believing on Him who sent Jesus in John 5:24, or as being drawn by the Father in 6:44, or as looking to the Son and believing in 6:40, or simply believing in 6:47. The result is the same in each case - eternal life, or being raised up at the least day. Hence, we here have a clear indication of Jesus’ usage of the metaphor of eating His flesh and drinking His "blood” in John 6. Graphically we would have:

"ALL the ones Looking icon the San and believing in Him" \
Those who are “drawn” by the Father --> all = being “raised upon the Last day."
"The One eating my flesh and drinking my blood” /

Hence, the sacramental interpretation of this passage is left with no foundation at all - Jesus is obviously not speaking of some “sacrament’ of the “Eucharist” established years later - His referring to His body and blood here is paralleled clearly with belief in the Son and the drawing of the Father - the same themes struck above. Consistency of interpretation must lead one to reject a sacramental interpretation of this passage.”

So where does the forced interpretation done by EO’s and RC’s come from? Why do they believe we need God will incarnate Himself as bread and wine? In “Jesus and the Eucharist,” Guzie points us to a link between pagan mystical religions and superstitions that were adopted by early professed Christians. Schaff writing on sacerdotalism explains that the Eastern Orthodox and Roman view, “is the outgrowth of a magical supernaturalism which absorbs and annihilates the natural and human, leaving only the empty form. The Lutheran doctrine implies an interpenetration of the divine and human. The commemorative theory of Zwingli saves the integrity and peculiar character of the divine and human, but keeps them separate and distinct. The eucharistic theory affects Christology, the relation of church and state, and in some measure the character of piety. Lutheranism inclines to the Eutychian, Zwinglianism to the Nestorian, Christology. The former fosters a mystical, the latter a practical, type of piety” Schaff’s History of the Christian Church

In closing I’ll quote Dr. F.N. Lee’s work title, “FIFTY-FIVE THESES AGAINST TRANSUBSTANTIATION” Link will be provided below.

First. Together with Holy Scripture, I assert the real presence of Christ, personally, at His Sacraments and in His Word and through His Spirit. Exactly that assertion of the omnipresence there of the Son of God, impels me to deny His physical presence in and under the sacramental elements, or even in the Bible as His Holy Word. Christ Himself insists against any view of a merely `local presence’ either in Jerusalem or in Samaria: “God is Spirit; and they that worship Him, must worship Him in spirit and in truth.” John 4:20-26.

Third. John chapter six has nothing to do with the Lord’s Supper, which was instituted only later at the very end of Christ’s earthly ministry. The RC Church and other groups which appeal to that passage to try to establish that Christ is physically present in the bread and the wine at His Supper, err greatly. For John 6:9-13 is not sacramental. Nor is it an account of transubstantiating bread and fishes into Himself, but rather a description of His miraculous multiplication of five loaves and two small fishes into many more untransubstantiated loaves and fishes sufficient to feed about five thousand mature men and perhaps also their womenfolk and their children. John 6:10 cf. Matt. 14:14-21 & Mark 6:36-44 & Luke 9:14-17.

Fourth. From John 6:26 onward, Jesus said to the folk: “Truly I tell you, you seek Me …because you ate of the loaves and were filled.” Then, in 6:32, Jesus implied that He Himself is the bread from heaven. He did not anabaptistically bring His flesh with Him from heaven-but only His Own Person, and indeed in a Spirit-ual way. He took upon Himself flesh for the first time not in or from heaven, but only from and within the womb of Mary as His earthly mother.

Fifth. In 6:33, He says that the bread of heaven is not His earthly flesh but He Who [personally and now incarnately] came down to give life to the world. When in 6:34, the believers said to Him `Lord, give us this bread evermore!’- Jesus did not pick up a piece of earthly bread and turn it into Himself. Instead, in 6:35, He said to them `I am the bread of life’ [and not `I will become the bread of life’]; he who comes to Me [and not `he who comes to a piece of earthly bread that I will turn into Myself] shall never be hue.” Yet the latter indeed does happen, between Masses, to those that from time to time come and receive the RC Mass.

Sixth. In John 6:48f, Jesus added: “I am that bread of life.” He did not say: `Earthly bread will become Me.’ Of Himself He then said: “This is the bread that comes down from heaven [not `that earthly bread will become Me just whenever an earthly priest so alleges’]. If any man eat of this bread, he shall live for ever [not `even if any man eats the Mass on earth, he might still end up in hell’]. And the bread that I will give [not `the bread which an earthly priest may give’], is My flesh which I will give for the life of the world.”

Seventh. In John 6:52-58, “the [unbelieving] Jews therefore strove among themselves, saying, `How can this man give us his flesh to eat?”‘ This shows that they had a carnal, cannibalistic, materialistic, and `localized presence’ misunderstanding of what Jesus was saying.

Eighth. In 6:53, “Jesus said to them,`Very truly I tell you, unless you keep on eating the flesh of the Son of man and keep on drinking His blood [not `unless you from time to time keep coming to Mass’], you have no life in yourselves. Whoever keeps on eating My flesh and keeps on drinking My blood, has everlasting life. “‘ That cannot truthfully be asserted of all who are merely regular communicants. “For My [then and there untransubstantiated!] flesh is food indeed, and My blood is drink indeed. He who keeps on eating My flesh and keeps on drinking My blood [rather than keeps on having the dark-red wine withheld from him by a creaturely earthly priest], keeps on dwelling in Me [not physically but spiritually!], And I in him [not physically but spiritually!] ….

Ninth. Jesus then insisted: “`He who keeps on feeding on Me [and not `he who from time to time consumes transubstantiated bread and wine’], even he shall keep on living by Me [not `by the Mass’]. This is that bread which came down from heaven [and not `you must physically eat my flesh which came forth from Mary!’] …. He who keeps on eating of this bread [namely the Christ from heaven], shall continue living for ever [and not `might end up in heaven after a reasonable term in purgatory, yet could possibly still end up in hell for ever’]!”

Tenth. In John 6:61f, when even His disciples kept on murmuring about this, Jesus said to them [altogether Proto-Calvinistically and totally untransubstantiatingly]: “It is the Spirit Who keeps on enlivening! The flesh profits not at all! The words which I have spoken (or keep speaking) to you, they are Spirit and they are life! But there are some of you who do not believe” [such as Judas Iscariot whom Rome would have us believe nevertheless physically ate and drank the Divinity and also the very flesh and blood of Christ]. Compare John 6:64-71.

Eleventh. Literalistic transubstantiation would imply Judas was a God-eating cannibalistic infidel who here physically ate God and the flesh and drank the blood of Jesus, Who had as then not yet died. But He would then (against His Own Word in Lev. 26:29 & Dent. 28:53) have had to have given a piece of His flesh and siphoned off some of His blood for Judas’s faithless consumption thereof!

Source

Yours in the Lord,

jm
 
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MarkRohfrietsch

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Oh but scripture does deny that God takes the form of bread and that's where we disagree. John 6 denies Christ is physical bread in many, many ways. Jesus fed the people physically and they followed Him looking for a meal instead of seeing the miracles He performed as confirming His office. He told them to stop looking for physical food for that is not what the miracles were about, that He is the bread of life, and if you partake of Christ spiritually you will be spiritually satisfied. They would live forever since we are reconciled back to the Father through Christ's mediation...not because He is bread.

“It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.”

We find in divine revelation that Christ is the express image of God, no other form is revealed to man, we seek Christ and Christ alone.



It can be demonstrated from scripture otherwise. The Lutheran church never really followed through with reforming their traditions to scripture. Consider the changes made to Martin Luther’s soteriology (see Bondage of the Will) by Philip Melanchthon and you will start to see that “Lutheranism” is really “Melanchtonism.”



If I quote “Brother Nathanael” the notorious anti-Semite, who believes Orthodox Tradition sustains his views, (also see the historical origins of the how serious would you take my inquiry? Wright, and much of Anglicanism, has strayed from their biblical moorings.



Already discussed.

Yours in the Lord,

jm

Respectfully, Lutheranism is not so cut and dried; Confessional Synods retain a very othrodox view of the Eucharist; while what you call "Melanchtonism" or we would call Philipist Luthranism have moved more towards Calvinism; hence the address of the "Crypto-Calvinist Controversy" in the unaltered 1580 edition of the Book of Concord that is held by so called "Confessional Lutherans" to this day as an exposition of Scripture (I know, because I am one).
 
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