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Messianic
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by abolishing in His flesh the hostility, which is the Law composed of commandments expressed in ordinances ("dogma" from the greek),
What is "the Law" if not the Law of Moses?
Ephesians 2:15
15 την εχθραν εν τη σαρκι αυτου τον νομον των εντολων εν δογμασιν καταργησας ινα τους δυο κτιση εν αυτω εις ενα καινον ανθρωπον ποιων ειρηνην
It isn't hard to understand once you realize Paul uses dogmas in this statement.
τον νομον των εντολων εν δογμασιν ~ the law of the injunctions/commands in dogmas
However it is also evident that Paul uses nomos in the same sense as torah quite more often than most would like to imagine, and the meaning of torah is actually instruction, thus also teaching, and nomos here can also be read that way because it is just a Greek loan word for torah, instituted in the Septuagint, which the Apostles often quote from.
Dogma:
Luke 3:1 KJV
1 And it came to pass in those days, that there went out a decree [G1378 δογμα] from Caesar Augustus, that all the world should be taxed.
Acts 16:4 KJV
4 And as they went through the cities, they delivered them the decrees [G1378 δογμα] for to keep, that were ordained of the apostles and elders which were at Jerusalem.
Acts 17:7 KJV
7 Whom Jason hath received: and these all do contrary to the decrees [G1378 δογμα] of Caesar, saying that there is another king, one Jesus.
Apart from Eph 2:15, Col 2:14, and Col 2:20, (dogmatizo), that's it for dogma in the N/T.
Strange how the translators forget the meaning when it comes to Eph 2:15 and Col 2:14, 20, eh?
Shall we go to the Septuagint?
I believe you are forced to argue that the word "ordnances" has to refer to human dogma. If you can make that case, you have at least the beginning of a case. More specifically, it seems to me that you are forced into the following argument:
1. The word rendered as "ordnances" here denotes "human dogma"
2. Since this thing called "the Law" is composed of such human ordnances, this "Law" cannot be the Law of Moses.
First, the overall context shows that is has to be the Law of Moses (I realize this is just a claim, for now). And why would the author use the term "Law" to mean something other than the Law of Moses given the obvious fact that, generally at least, the term "Law" does indeed refer to the Law of Moses? But let's set these objections aside for now.
The key point: The term translated as "ordnances" does not require us to see them as originating from humans. My sources define this word as:
"a decree, edict, ordnance. From the base of dokea; a law"
There is nothing in this definition that excludes a divine origin. So there is no real justification for concluding that "the Law" cannot be the Law of Moses specifically because it is composed of δογμασιν.
Let's be clear: I am not claiming, in this post at least, to have made a case that "the Law composed of commandments expressed in ordnances" is the Law of Moses. But when you say Torah is never referred to as something that contains "δογμασιν", I have shown we have reasons to doubt this claim as it seems at least plausible, and I suggest certain based on arguments I have yet to provide, that the very text we are discussing is a counterexample.
The scripture defines and interprets the scripture.
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