Many fundalmentalist who are so firm on their belief of salvation by grace thru faith alone in the New Testament (which I believe, at least from mid Acts on) that they say OT Jews were also saved like we are today. In other words they believe the OT Jews believed the same message we believe today (I Cor. 15:1-5). If that were the case then after the Jew "believed on the Lord Jesus Christ" then why would he have to continue to keep the law from then on? Why even have the law if salvation was by grace thru faith alone?
Folks are funny you know.
Folks are funny you know.
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