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2 Peter 3:
15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given unto him hath written unto you;
16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.

In the KJV Peter refers to Paul’s writings as Scripture.
 
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Fisherking

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In the KJV Peter refers to Paul’s writings as Scripture.
Not really, it says they will not listen to his epistles, just as they would not listen unto the "other scriptures" So, he calls one letters or epistles and the other holy writ documents or scriptures.

My argument is not that these teaching are not Godly, but that they were unto specific flocks, and thus Paul who said I will be all things to all men that I might save them (something to that effect) hears from the Thessalonians that there dead loved ones who have passed on will not make heaven now tat they are dead, some's up with a SLANTED (not untrue per se) ABGLE on the Rapture. He says the Dead in Christ will rise FIRST, then those alive will rise a split second later (1 Col. 15:50-52). Well, you and I know the Blink of an eye takes less than a split second, so what Paul is doing here is laying it on heavy like Andy Griffith telling a story or tall tale to the kids about the American Revolution because he had given the kids the impression school work was not important, mistakenly, so he once he got finished telling about Paul Revere galloping at full speed they were like, I want to study that. Paul is just assuring them, in his own manner, to the best of his ability, that their loved ones will be taken home one day to be with Jesus. And if him putting a little extra jam on the bread helped them hold onto the Faith, KOOL. But, when the Dead rise we rise at the exact same time, we leave our bodies behind (meaning, WE DIE and our Spirit Men go to be with the Lord).

Paul saw himself as a Pastor to many flocks, the Word had been Written, THE WORD came and died on the cross. It is finished. Us reading these epistles is for a demonstration how to walk in the Lord. In my opinion, only the book of Revelation is directly from God. The Four Gospels ha to be the account of four human beings, remember, Jesus said if I testify of myself my testimony is not true (will not be seen as true by others is what he meant, God can not lie). The Epistles was to show us the Church in Action, thats why the RCC put them in their bible.
 
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TheCabinetGuy

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Read Ezekiel chapters 8-9. Biggest clue in there as to what the mark of the beast is about.
The mark of the beast has been worn by occultists for thousands of years. It is the satanic symbol, not the tech embedded into it that makes it evil. Everyone has seen at least one version of it. It is the symbol of the occultic sun.
The rebuilt temple is meant to be taken literally. It's not just the Jews that want the temple in Jerusalem rebuilt...
 
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Zao is life

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Read Ezekiel chapters 8-9. Biggest clue in there as to what the mark of the beast is about.
The mark of the beast has been worn by occultists for thousands of years. It is the satanic symbol, not the tech embedded into it that makes it evil. Everyone has seen at least one version of it. It is the symbol of the occultic sun.
The rebuilt temple is meant to be taken literally. It's not just the Jews that want the temple in Jerusalem rebuilt...
If you take the language literally the temple mentioned in 2 Thess 2:4 is the New Testament Temple. The word naos refers to the actual sanctuary of God (unlike the word hieron, which refers to the temple structure / buildings) and the word naos is not used again in reference to the temple in Jerusalem after the three verses in the synoptic gospels telling us about the tearing of the veil in the sanctuary of God of the temple in Jerusalem when Jesus died on the cross.

Acts' multiple references to the temple in Jerusalem use the word hieron, never the word naos. When Acts records the Jewish leaders accusing Paul of defiling "this holy place" (meaning the temple in Jerusalem), the words used are hagios topos (holy place).

In Acts we are told twice by the apostles of Christ that God does not dwell in a naos (God's sanctuary) made with (human) hands.

When Paul mentioned the temple in Jerusalem in his epistles, he used the word hieron. When he refers to the bodies of individual saints as the Temple of of God and the church as the Temple of God, he uses the word naos each time. So why would he have used the word naos in 2 Thess 2:4 if he was talking about a structure to be built in Jerusalem that many will call "the Temple of God"?

That structure will be a hieron, not the sanctuary (naos) of God. Even the inner sanctuary of that temple will be the hieron, not the sanctuary of God (naos).

Every reference to God's (heavenly) Temple in the Revelation uses the word naos.

The only verse that many choose to dispute is Revelation 11:1-2, which uses the word naos - but the holy city is mentioned in Revelation 11:2 and the Revelation calls New Jerusalem the holy city three other times, but never calls the other cities mentioned in the Revelation "the holy city, which are

Babylon the Great
The city spiritually called Sodom and Egypt where our Lord was cricified
The cities of the nations that fell when the 7th bowl was poured out.

Obviously the Revelation does not call the above cities the holy city - but it calls New Jerusalem or Mount Zion the Holy City three other times, aside from Revelation 11:2.

So because the temple in Revelation 11:1-2 is linked to the holy city in the verses, and the word naos is used in reference to the temple, it's way more likely that Revelation 11:1-2's temple is referring to the same temple mentioned in Revelation 13 that will be blasphemed by the beast - who Revelation 13:7 tells us will go to war against the saints and overcome them.

So if you indeed do choose to take the language literally (as you claim to) , then the temple mentioned in 2 Thess 2:4 and in Revelation 11:1-2 is the New Testament Temple - because the New Testament was not written in English - it was written in Greek, which maintains a consistent distinction between the naos (actual sanctuary of God) and hieron - a temple structure.

In our day hieron would be the church building. The naos (sanctuary of God) is only present when the saints are gathered in it, because where two or three are gathered together in Jesus' name, He is there in their midst.
 
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TheCabinetGuy

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If you take the language literally the temple mentioned in 2 Thess 2:4 is the New Testament Temple. The word naos refers to the actual sanctuary of God (unlike the word hieron, which refers to the temple structure / buildings) and the word naos is not used again in reference to the temple in Jerusalem after the three verses in the synoptic gospels telling us about the tearing of the veil in the sanctuary of God of the temple in Jerusalem when Jesus died on the cross.

Acts' multiple references to the temple in Jerusalem use the word hieron, never the word naos. When Acts records the Jewish leaders accusing Paul of defiling "this holy place" (meaning the temple in Jerusalem), the words used are hagios topos (holy place).

In Acts we are told twice by the apostles of Christ that God does not dwell in a naos (God's sanctuary) made with (human) hands.

When Paul mentioned the temple in Jerusalem in his epistles, he used the word hieron. When he refers to the bodies of individual saints as the Temple of of God and the church as the Temple of God, he uses the word naos each time. So why would he have used the word naos in 2 Thess 2:4 if he was talking about a structure to be built in Jerusalem that many will call "the Temple of God"?

That structure will be a hieron, not the sanctuary (naos) of God. Even the inner sanctuary of that temple will be the hieron, not the sanctuary of God (naos).

Every reference to God's (heavenly) Temple in the Revelation uses the word naos.

The only verse that many choose to dispute is Revelation 11:1-2, which uses the word naos - but the holy city is mentioned in Revelation 11:2 and the Revelation calls New Jerusalem the holy city three other times, but never calls the other cities mentioned in the Revelation "the holy city, which are

Babylon the Great
The city spiritually called Sodom and Egypt where our Lord was cricified
The cities of the nations that fell when the 7th bowl was poured out.

Obviously the Revelation does not call the above cities the holy city - but it calls New Jerusalem or Mount Zion the Holy City three other times, aside from Revelation 11:2.

So because the temple in Revelation 11:1-2 is linked to the holy city in the verses, and the word naos is used in reference to the temple, it's way more likely that Revelation 11:1-2's temple is referring to the same temple mentioned in Revelation 13 that will be blasphemed by the beast - who Revelation 13:7 tells us will go to war against the saints and overcome them.

So if you indeed do choose to take the language literally (as you claim to) , then the temple mentioned in 2 Thess 2:4 and in Revelation 11:1-2 is the New Testament Temple - because the New Testament was not written in English - it was written in Greek, which maintains a consistent distinction between the naos (actual sanctuary of God) and hieron - a temple structure.

In our day hieron would be the church building. The naos (sanctuary of God) is only present when the saints are gathered in it, because where two or three are gathered together in Jesus' name, He is there in their midst.
smh. If the temple that John was instructed to measure merely symbolic of the church, then why would it have an outer court? And if the temple were the temple in heaven not earth, then why were the Gentiles trampling it underfoot? The passage only makes sense if the temple in Jerusalem is rebuilt.

It is important to note that if the Jesuits get what they want then this prophecy will be fulfilled literally to the t. No global conspiracy theory is complete without including the Society of Jesus someway, somehow. And if not the Jesuits, then another Luciferian organization with the exact same plan. I do not know all the twists and turns that'll play out in the future, but I do know that ultimately what is written will come to pass exactly as it was written.
 
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Zao is life

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smh. If the temple that John was instructed to measure merely symbolic of the church, then why would it have an outer court? And if the temple were the temple in heaven not earth, then why were the Gentiles trampling it underfoot? The passage only makes sense if the temple in Jerusalem is rebuilt.

It is important to note that if the Jesuits get what they want then this prophecy will be fulfilled literally to the t. No global conspiracy theory is complete without including the Society of Jesus someway, somehow. And if not the Jesuits, then another Luciferian organization with the exact same plan. I do not know all the twists and turns that'll play out in the future, but I do know that ultimately what is written will come to pass exactly as it was written.
The Gentiles will be trampling the holy city underfoot for 42 months. The beast will be making war against the saints and overcoming them for 42 months. The outer court is apostate Christians + nominal ones who do not believe, shown by the fact that they do not believe that the third Temple of God - the sanctuary of God where the Holy Spirit dwells - has already been built by God Himself, and it's the body of Christ.

The ones who do not truly believe that Christ is the third Temple - the Temple of God - and that those He indwells are His Temple, will keep blaming the Jews for every evil done under the son - including the coming abomination of desolation in (the only) holy place of God. They will have it that the unbelieving Jews will be responsible for that coming abomination too, instead of those who will be responsible - apostate Christians given over to lawlessness as described in 2 Thessalonians 2. They are the people in the outer courts who do not believe - Gentiles.

They show themselves up often enough by false accusations hurled at anyone who disagrees with their error (such as but not limited to calling anyone who shows their eschatology and theology up as false, "Jesuits").​
 
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Fisherking

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Read Ezekiel chapters 8-9. Biggest clue in there as to what the mark of the beast is about.
The mark of the beast has been worn by occultists for thousands of years. It is the satanic symbol, not the tech embedded into it that makes it evil. Everyone has seen at least one version of it. It is the symbol of the occultic sun.
The rebuilt temple is meant to be taken literally. It's not just the Jews that want the temple in Jerusalem rebuilt...
The Mark of the Beast is simple, matters not what it is, you will be given a choice, (not me or the Church we will not be here) of do you want to serve this man or not. Join in and you can buy and sell. They did the same thing during Roman times, in order to shop in certain places you ad to be marked with a black marker pledging your allegiance to the Emperor.

This gets overblown, the IT doesn't matter, choices will have to be made.

smh. If the temple that John was instructed to measure merely symbolic of the church, then why would it have an outer court? And if the temple were the temple in heaven not earth, then why were the Gentiles trampling it underfoot? The passage only makes sense if the temple in Jerusalem is rebuilt.

It is important to note that if the Jesuits get what they want then this prophecy will be fulfilled literally to the t. No global conspiracy theory is complete without including the Society of Jesus someway, somehow. And if not the Jesuits, then another Luciferian organization with the exact same plan. I do not know all the twists and turns that'll play out in the future, but I do know that ultimately what is written will come to pass exactly as it was written.
Rev. 11:1-3 gives us the "Parameters" of the Two-witnesses Ministry. Like Jesus they are sent only to the Jews, and to pray down plagues on the wicked. Thus by measuring it clarifies who they have been sent to turn back unto God, just as Malachi 4:5-6 states, Elijah will be sent back before (in the presence of or in the face of as in before a Kings face/presence) the DOTL.

Rev. 11:1 And there was given me a reed like unto a rod: and the angel stood, saying, Rise, and measure the temple of God, and the altar, and them that worship therein.{{Only Jews could worship therein the Temple, the Gentiles were of course given an Outer Court as you spoke about}}

2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty and two months.

3 And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred and threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.

So, basically the Two-witnesses Prophesy 1260 days, they are sent ONLY to Israel/Jews, that is what it means by MEASURE the Temple, the Altar and those who worship therein, but DON'T MEASSURE the Gentile sections. This is simple God telling John the Two-witnesses are sent only unto the Jews and not unto the Gentiles.
 
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