Why is this same Greek word translated into two different words in the Bible?

[deathtolife04]

Why is this same Greek word translated into two different words in the Bible? Why is it that in the King James Version of the Bible, the Greek word "pneuma" is sometimes translated to "Spirit", and other times translated to "Ghost"?

For example, look at Matthew. In Matthew 1:18, it's translated to "Ghost", but in Matthew 3:16, it's translated to "Spirit"? I guess in Matthew it looks to me like it is translated to "Ghost" only when the word "Holy" is before it.
But why is that?

And in other cases, like Luke 11:13, the word "Holy" is before it, but it is translated to "Spirit".

Why is this?!



I JUST started looking into the original Greek/Hebrew words, and some of it's really confusing!



I'm actually trying to learn more about the baptism of the Holy Spirit, because I've heard so many different opinions on it. I thought looking at the roots of the words "Holy Spirit" in different verses might help me out a little...

 

[D.W.Washburn]

Except for the term "Holy Ghost," the word "ghost" appears in KJ only in the phrases "give up the ghost" (16 times) and "yield up the ghost" (3 times). There is no difference in meaning between these phrases, which in most of the cases simply represent a single Hebrew or Greek word, a verb meaning "die." For example in Acts 5.5, it is said that Ananias "gave up the ghost" and in verse 10 of the same chapter that his wife "yielded up the ghost." The difference in wording was Tyndale's, and was retained by the authorized versions including the KJ. Yet there is no word here for "ghost"; and the greek verb, which is exacly the same in the two verses, means "died."

In 1611 the expression "Holy Ghost" meant what "Holy Spirit" means now. Then the word "ghost" meant the spirit, or immaterial part of a person, as distinct from the body; and "ghostly" meant spiritual....The American revisers of 1901 used "Holy Spirit" instead of "Holy Ghost" and this more meaningful translation has gained wide acceptance.

It should be added that the Greek word pneuma is by KJ itself translated as the "spirit" of man 151 times and as the "Spirit" of God 137 times, while it has retained the expression "Holy Ghost" 89 times.

The Greek word phantasma, which means apparition or phantom, is used in Matthew 14.26 and Mark 6.49 to express the fear of the disciples when they saw Jesus walking on the sea. Following Tyndale, KJ has them say "It is a spirit." The Rhemish Version of 1582 used "ghost," as do the revised versions of 1881-1901 and nearly all modern translations.
--Bridges, Ronald and Luther A. Weigle, The King James Bible Word Book, Thomas Nelson Inc, 1994

I hope this helps.

 

[david01]

I won't add to the excellent reply by RegularGuy.

I will, however, mention that it is not at all unusual for various translations to use different English words for the same Greek word. For example, the Greek word, diakonos is variously transliterated as deacon and translated elsewhere as minister and as servant. It is a very common Greek word in the New Testament. The only translation I have seen which is completely consistent in using the (apparent) closest English translation for each Hebrew and Greek word is the New Translation by John Nelson Darby. Like all translations it has its flaws, but it is, at least, entirely consistent in this regard.

 

[oldsage]

Just to add some more about Greek. Words in Greek can have several English equivalents depending on context.

Like the Greek word "filo" pronounced "Phi Lo" It means "Love", "Like", or "Kiss". There isn't a word in English which can cover this range of meanings. So, we also need to look at the Semantic Domains of the Greek words to see how they can be used.

Don't worry about about the difference in translations. There are very learned people which did the translations.

Chris