John Mullally
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- Aug 5, 2020
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Perhaps "none seek after God" just means that man does not take the initial steps in seeking to bridge the gap with our God. who seeks after our benefit as displayed by Jesus. That is how I reconcile Acts 17:27 with Romans 3:9-12. And it preserves 1 Timothy 2:4.My problem comes with the two identical psalms which are quoted by Paul in Romans 3 where it is unambiguously stated that there are none who seek God, not even one. One possible view is that, although there are none who seek God, all are equally capable of seeking God. The fact that none exercise that ability still remains.
As you have been consistently pointing out, scripture also indicates that there are, indeed, some who do seek God, such as Paul was on his way to Damascus. If there are some who do seek God, but not everyone seeks God, then you have two classes of individuals rather than one.
Is this understandable?
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