God was not willing to destroy Ninevah until they had had a witness of Him because He considered them ignorant.
And should not I spare Nineveh, that great city, wherein are more than sixscore thousand persons that cannot discern between their right hand and their left hand -- Jonah 4:11
Thanks for the comprehensive response. Sorry about the delay in responding. I however tried to objectively assess your response and research it a little.
Your argument in this instance seems somewhat flawed as God did not justify not to destroy Nineveh because of their ignorance as it is clear that they repented and hence sparing them. They were not ignorant and therefore let off the hook.
Jon 3:5 And the men of Nineveh believed in God, and they called a fast and put on sackclothes, from the greatest of them even to the least of them.
Jon 3:10 And God saw their works, that they turned from their evil way. And God was compassionate over the evil that He had spoken to do to them, and He did not do it.
In the Mosaic law, atonement for guilt was not necessary until one gained knowledge of his guilt. If he never gained knowledge of his sin, atonement was not necessary.
And if the whole congregation of Israel sin through ignorance, and the thing be hid from the eyes of the assembly, and they have done somewhat against any of the commandments of the LORD concerning things which should not be done, and are guilty; When the sin, which they have sinned against it, is known, then the congregation shall offer a young bullock for the sin, and bring him before the tabernacle of the congregation. Leviticus 4:13, 14
You come to a conclusion which is not clearly stated nor necessarily implied, but based on your preferred interpretation.
It basically means that when they become aware of a sin of which a person was ignorant, they must repent and ask for forgiveness. It does not state or imply that sin did not exist. To the contrary sin through ignorance indicates that sin exists, not that knowledge of sin makes you guilty.
Whether they knew it was a sin or not, does not make it less of a sin, or less in need of forgiveness. If ignorance was an excuse, there was no need for repentance, as there was no sin according to your interpretation.
But apart from this logic, Leviticus itself contradicts your statement. To name a few:
Lev 4:2 Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a soul shall sin through ignorance against any of the commandments of the LORD concerning things which ought not to be done, and shall do against any of them:
Lev 5:17 And if a soul sin, and commit any of these things which are forbidden to be done by the commandments of the LORD; though he wist it not, yet is he guilty, and shall bear his iniquity.
David also ask for forgiveness for sins that was hidden:
Psa 19:12 Who can understand his errors? cleanse thou me from secret faults.
And if any one of the common people sin through ignorance, while he doeth somewhat against any of the commandments of the LORD concerning things which ought not to be done, and be guilty; Or if his sin come to his knowledge: then he shall bring his offering, a kid of the goats, a female without blemish, for his sin which he hath sinned. -- Leviticus 4:27, 28
When a ruler hath sinned, and done somewhat through ignorance against any of the commandments of the LORD his God concerning things which should not be done, and is guilty; Or if his sin, wherein he hath sinned, come to his knowledge; he shall bring his offering, a kid of the goats, a male without blemish -- Leviticus 4:22, 23
Or if a soul swear, pronouncing with his lips to do evil, or to do good, whatsoever it be that a man shall pronounce with an oath, and it be hid from him; when he knoweth of it, then he shall be guilty in one of these. -- Leviticus 5:4
Same answer. Note that he acknowledge that he has sinned.
Lev 5:5 And it shall be, when
he shall be guilty in one of these things, that he shall confess that
he hath sinned in that thing:
Those without the ability to know what is right are not held accountable for what they do not know.
Jesus said unto them, If ye were blind, ye should have no sin: but now ye say, We see; therefore your sin remaineth. -- John 9:41
Thank you for this.
This is one of the many benefits of forums such as these to make one consider your beliefs in the light of "opposing" points of view. It is not to seek justification for your point of view but assess it properly. In view of this specific text, I had to do quite a bit of research.
From my perspective, one should read it in context. The Pharisees claimed they can see, but being blind their sin remained as they rejected God. If they however confessed their blindness ,they would see. (See the previous verse "For judgment I am come into this world, that they which see not might see; and that they which see might be made blind.)
Arthur Pink expresses it better
"If you were sensible of your blindness and really desired light, if you would take this place before Me, salvation would be yours and no condemnation would rest upon you. But because of your pride and self-sufficiency, because you refuse to acknowledge your undone condition, your guilt remaineth." How strikingly this confirms our interpretation of verse 6 and the sequel. The blind man made to see illustrates those who accept Gods verdict of mans lost condition; the self-righteous Pharisees who refused to bow to the Lords decision that they were "condemned already (John 3:18), continued in their blindness and sin.
Or maybe somewhat (?) accountable, but knowledge is certainly factored into the severity of the penalty, with the explicitly stated conclusion being that the Master factors the level of knowledge into His judgment:
And that servant, which knew his lords will, and prepared not himself, neither did according to his will, shall be beaten with many stripes.
But he that knew not, and did commit things worthy of stripes, shall be beaten with few stripes. For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required: and to whom men have committed much, of him they will ask the more. -- Luke 12:47,48
Now, there are also two examples of condemnation because of knowledge:
And Rahab said unto the men, I know that the LORD hath given you the land, and that your terror is fallen upon us, and that all the inhabitants of the land faint because of you.
For we have heard how the LORD dried up the water of the Red sea for you, when ye came out of Egypt; and what ye did unto the two kings of the Amorites, that were on the other side Jordan, Sihon and Og, whom ye utterly destroyed.
And as soon as we had heard these things, our hearts did melt, neither did there remain any more courage in any man, because of you: for the LORD your God, he is God in heaven above, and in earth beneath.
Now therefore, I pray you, swear unto me by the LORD, since I have shewed you kindness, that ye will also shew kindness unto my fathers house, and give me a true token: -- Joshua 2:9-12
Jericho was condemned because they knew the truth of the Lord, but only Rahab acted on her knowledge.
This also applied to Sodom:
And there came two angels to Sodom at even; and Lot sat in the gate of Sodom: -- Genesis 19:1
And turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrha into ashes condemned them with an overthrow, making them an example unto those that after should live ungodly;
And delivered just Lot, vexed with the filthy conversation of the wicked: (For that righteous man dwelling among them, in seeing and hearing, vexed his righteous soul from day to day with their unlawful deeds -- 2 Peter 2:6-8
Lot generally doesn't get the credit due him from reading only the Genesis account. But scripture concludes its judgment of Lot saying he was a righteous man, and as a judge at the gates of Sodom, was vexed enough at the evil in that city to provide sufficient witness to condemn it.
The only people who are totally ignorant are infants who die. Everyone else is at least accountable for how they responded to the existence of God and His virtuous nature as revealed in creation. But clearly God factors in their level of knowledge in His judgment.
Job is the example of a man saved without benefit of revelation and without knowing the name of Jesus. Jonah is not of the lineage of Abraham, so he is not saved by that covenant. He does not know the name of Jesus. But as we can see by his plea for a mediator who can lay hands on both him and God, Jonah knows he needs Jesus even without knowing the name of Jesus, because Hebrews tells us that Jesus is that mediator.
Yes, it is evident that the measure of light will have implications in judgement and penalty. However, it is also evident that it is no excuse but still need to receive forgiveness of sin. It is only through the blood of Christ that we receive this.
I agree with much that you say, although as far as infants are concerned, it seems they are under the same conditions as we are. There is however a difference of opinion on this as it is not clearly articulated in Scripture and hence my position that I would not like to express a specific view on this other than to state that I trust in the love, mercy and righteousness of God.
Scripture that would suggest infants etc are sinners and thus condemned apart from the grace of God (underserved merit)
Rom 5:18 : In like manner therefore, because of the offense of the one there was a guilty verdict to all the children of men.
David laments:
Psa 51:5 Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, and in sin my mother conceived me.
Barnes comments He looked at his, sin, and he looked back to his own origin, and he inferred that the one demonstrated that in the other there was no good thing, no tendency to goodness, no germ of goodness, but that there was evil, and only evil; as when one looks at a tree, and sees that it bears sour or poisonous fruit, he infers that it is in the very nature of the tree, and that there is nothing else in the tree, from its origin, but a tendency to produce just such fruit.
If this is the case, and none can claim innocence, the same principle of the grace of God is bestowed on whom He wills and we should be the last to claim that He has no right to do that.
A seemingly contrary position is expressed but sin is not imputed where there is no law Rom 5:13 For sin was in the world until Law, but sin is not charged where there is no law;
Jamieson, Fausset and Brown comments on this There must therefore have been a law during that period, because sin was then imputed; as is now to be shown.
For until the law sin was in the world that is during all the period from Adam until the law of Moses was given, God continued to treat men as sinners.
but sin is not imputed where there is no law There must therefore have been a law during that period, because sin was then imputed; as is now to be shown.
Thank you for your thoughtful response. I must however conclude that on the basis of careful evaluation of your expressed views, I cannot agree with them as Scripture in its totality (and we have obly scratched the surface) make all men guilty.
The reason why I initially indicated that I do not wish to express judgment on the issue of foetuses, young children, intellectually handicapped etc is that there is insufficient information for me to make a clear case, and must subsequently come to conclusions based on human wisdom (which is allways dangerous).
Regards
Andre