Exegesis of Galatians 3: The Gospel Came Before The Law

Paleouss

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.
"7 Know then that it is those of faith who are the sons of Abraham."
Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,
8 And the Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, "In you shall all the nations be blessed.""9 So then, those who are of faith are blessed along with Abraham, the man of faith."
In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,
"15 To give a human example, brothers: even with a man-made covenant, no one annuls it or adds to it once it has been ratified. 16 Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, "And to offsprings," referring to many, but referring to one, "And to your offspring," who is Christ."
It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,
"the law, which came 430 years afterward, does not annul a covenant previously ratified by God, so as to make the promise void." (Gal 3:17).
Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...
"vs19...It was added because of transgressions, until the offspring should come to whom the promise had been made"

So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
 
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AlexB23

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.

Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,

In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,

It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,

Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...


So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
My favorite verse from Galatians is this one below.

Galatians 3:28: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
 
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SabbathBlessings

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.

Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,

In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,

It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,

Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...


So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
Law is a generic term, and we need to look at the context to which law is being referred to.

The law that is mainly being referred to in Galatians is circumcision, which is different from God's moral law the Ten Commandments that defines sin Rom 7:7 Mat 5:19-30. The law that defines sin cannot be the same law that was added because of sin.

The Jews were trying to make Gentiles be circumcised to be saved and Paul was correcting them.


Gal 2:1 Then after fourteen years, I went up again to Jerusalem, this time with Barnabas. I took Titus along also. 2 I went in response to a revelation and, meeting privately with those esteemed as leaders, I presented to them the gospel that I preach among the Gentiles. I wanted to be sure I was not running and had not been running my race in vain. 3 Yet not even Titus, who was with me, was compelled to be circumcised, even though he was a Greek. 4 This matter arose because some false believers had infiltrated our ranks to spy on the freedom we have in Christ Jesus and to make us slaves. 5 We did not give in to them for a moment, so that the truth of the gospel might be preserved for you.

6 As for those who were held in high esteem—whatever they were makes no difference to me; God does not show favoritism—they added nothing to my message. 7 On the contrary, they recognized that I had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the uncircumcised, just as Peter had been to the circumcised. 8 For God, who was at work in Peter as an apostle to the circumcised, was also at work in me as an apostle to the Gentiles. 9 James, Cephas[c] and John, those esteemed as pillars, gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship when they recognized the grace given to me. They agreed that we should go to the Gentiles, and they to the circumcised. 10 All they asked was that we should continue to remember the poor, the very thing I had been eager to do all along.


17 “But if, in seeking to be justified in Christ, we Jews find ourselves also among the sinners, doesn’t that mean that Christ promotes sin? Absolutely not! 18 If I rebuild what I destroyed, then I really would be a lawbreaker.

19 “For through the law I died to the law so that I might live for God. 20 I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I now live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me. 21 I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing!”


Basically Paul is saying if all we had to do was become circumcised to be saved Christ died for nothing. The law is not meant to keep to be saved, it has always been kept through faith.

Paul is not "doing away with the law" as some people teach- he says later circumcision is not what matters but keeping God's commandments is what matters 1 Cor 7:19 so obviously not teaching we can vain God's name, worship other gods, covet, steal or teach away from Christ teachings not break the least of these commandments Mat 5:19-30 He is teaching we too must die to sin (breaking God's law) and have Christ live in us. We need to same faith of Jesus Rev 14:12 Jesus kept all of the commandments John 15:10 and taught we should too John 14:15 Exo 20:6 not to keep the law to be saved, but kept through faith Rom 3:31 Rev 14:12 and love 1 John 5:3 John 14:15 Exo 20:6
 
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SabbathBlessings

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My favorite verse from Galatians is this one below.

Galatians 3:28: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
Yes, all God's children through faith Gal 3:26
 
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Paleouss

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Law is a generic term, and we need to look at the context to which law is being referred to.
Good morning SabbethBlessing. I hope you had a blessed evening. Thank you for your insights into my studies of Galatians 3.

To start, I agree that the term 'law' appears to be used to reference different things within the NT. You pointed out that Galatians 2 starts the context of circumcision. A good point, I think. Thank you.

A verse I didn't focus on a lot in my first post was Galatians 3:10. I was more interested in the claim by Paul that the gospel of faith (Gal 3:7-8) came before the law. But again, your point is well made about circumcision in Galatians chpt 2. Anyway, about Galatians 3:10, Paul appears to be quoting Dueteronomy 27:26 in his explination about his contrast he is making. So whatever 'law' Paul is referring to. We know one of those is circumcision, i.e., a ceremonial law, because it is an issue in Galatians 2. He is also bringing in the the concepts of Deuteronomy chapter 27 within his conversation. So it seems to me that whatever 'law' Paul means here, he means at least circumcision and the concepts in Deuteronomy chapter 27. For he brings it into the conversation and those familiar with what he is referring to would think about the surrounding lessons of Deuteronomy 27:26.
(Deu 27:26 ESV) 26 "'Cursed be anyone who does not confirm the words of this law by doing them.' And all the people shall say, 'Amen.'
Looking at the context of Deuteronomy 27:26 it appears that Deuteronomy 27:26 is referring to Deuteronomy 27:15-25 specifically and possibly all the way back to chapter 26 in a broader sense. Those 'curses' that Paul appears to be bringing into his Galatians 3 aurgement, along with the circumcision that started his conversation within Galatians are...Deu 27:15 -- carved or cast metal image, Deu 27:16 -- dishonor of father and mother, Deu 27:17 -- moving a neighbor's landmark, Deu 27:18 -- misleading a blind man on the road, Deu 27:19 -- perverting the justice due to the sojourner, Deu 27:20 -- one who lays with his fathers wife, Deu 27:21 one who lays with any kind of animal, Deu 27:22 -- one who lays with his sister, Deu 27:23 -- one who lays with his mother-in-law, Deu 27:24 -- striking down his neighbor in secret, Deu 27:25 -- takes a bribe to shed innocent blood.

Although Deuteronomy chapter 26 can be said to be referencing cerimonial laws, I think. These topics in Deutoronomy 27 appear to be more than ceremonial. They appear to be related more to coveting, adultery, honor of father and mother, and murder. All of which are part of the 10 Commandments.

Right after this Deuteronomy quote, Paul says...
(Gal 3:11 ESV)
11 Now it is evident that no one is justified before God by the law, for "The righteous shall live by faith."
Interestingly, right after making the quote of Deuteronomy 27:26 (in Gal 3:10) and then this statement, above, in Galatians 3:11, Paul gives another OT quote from Leviticus 18:5. So he has sandwiched Gallatians 3:11 with OT quotes.
(Lev 18:4-5 ESV)
4 You shall follow my rules and keep my statutes and walk in them. I am the LORD your God. 5 You shall therefore keep my statutes and my rules; if a person does them, he shall live by them: I am the LORD.
It seems that this quote brings in rules and statutes and the 'shall nots' of uncovering, given in Leviticus 18:4-26.

Again, it seems to me that when Paul makes these quotes from the OT, those that read them would think about the surrounding lessons of the OT quote. They would know from where he is quoting and the context in which he makes the quotes. So based on this, the 'law' in which Paul is referring, started with circumcision in chpt2 and includes the examples he brings into the conversation from the OT. Which are those of Deuteronomy and Leviticus.

Do you think this is an accurate reading?


God bless you brother
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Good morning SabbethBlessing. I hope you had a blessed evening. Thank you for your insights into my studies of Galatians 3.

To start, I agree that the term 'law' appears to be used to reference different things within the NT. You pointed out that Galatians 2 starts the context of circumcision. A good point, I think. Thank you.

Hey there,

Thanks for kind message. :)

Before we look at the individual scriptures you pointed out, I wanted to share some foundational principles, which I believe makes for better understanding of some of the NT writings, especially Paul's which came with a warning, which says many people don't understand and twist 2 Peter 3:16 (I'm not saying you are) just putting that out there because we need to keep in mind God's Word felt Paul's writing needed to come with a warning. Many people think Paul taught something different than Jesus, but he never did- Paul was a servant of Christ, just as we are called to be and he obeyed and served Him.

There are two major sets of laws in the scriptures. The Ten Commandments- written by the finger of God Exo 32:16 Exo 31:18 that God called "My Covenant" Deut 4:13 Exo 34:28 or "My commandments" Exo 20:6 that no more were added to the 10C- they are a standalone unit and they were placed inside the ark of the covenant Exo 40:20 as it is what points out sin Rom 3:20, Rom 7:7 Mat 5:19-30 and what all man are judged by James 2:10-12 Mat 5:19-30 Ecc 12:13-14, Rev 22:14-15 which is why the Ten sits under Christ's mercy seat which is revealed in heaven Rev 11:19 as the earthy temple was patterned after the heavenly temple Heb 8:1-5

The other laws (statues, ordinances etc.) are the law of Moses Luke 2:22 1 Cor 9:9- which was placed outside the ark Deut 31:26 which contained curses for not keeping what was inside the ark (the 10) Deut 29:20-23, Gal 3:10 and was added because of sin Gal 3:19

Scripture tells us where there is no law- there is no sin (transgression) Romans 4:15 and sin is the transgression of the law 1 John 3:4 the Ten Commandments Rom 7:7 so God's eternal Ten Commandments had to always be there because Lucifer sinned in heaven 1 John 3:8 meaning he broke God's law. He was a covering cherub meaning he was one of the Angels covering the ark of the covenant- so we know God's law is in heaven. Eze 28:14. Adam and Eve when they ate from the forbidden fruit broke a slew of the commandments like commandment #1 when they believed the serpent over God, they coveted and stole the fruit when it was not their to have and sin is what separates man from God Isa 59:2. Cain knew it was a "sin" to kill Abel so obviously he was given God's law as no law, not sin. Rom 4:15

Jesus came to reconcile us and the biggest change in the NC is how we seek forgiveness of sins. Instead of sacrificing an animal for sin through the Levitical Priesthood which is the law that was added because of sin and all pointed to Jesus Heb 10:11-22 1 Cor 5:7- we can go directly to Jesus when we sin- which means a change of heart and direction. Pro 28:13 1 Peter 1:9 Sin is still breaking God's law Rom 7:7 breaking one we break them all James 2:10-12 but Jesus is now our Advocate, High Priest and Mediator. The NC is based on much better promises Heb 8:6 not new or better laws as it still has God's law written in the heart Heb 8:10 but it comes with His power through our cooperation.
A verse I didn't focus on a lot in my first post was Galatians 3:10. I was more interested in the claim by Paul that the gospel of faith (Gal 3:7-8) came before the law.
The law Paul is referring to is the ceremonial laws that all pointed forward to Christ. We have always been saved by faith- in the OT was faith pointing forward to the Cross in the NC it is faith pointing back to the Cross.
But again, your point is well made about circumcision in Galatians chpt 2. Anyway, about Galatians 3:10, Paul appears to be quoting Dueteronomy 27:26 in his explination about his contrast he is making. So whatever 'law' Paul is referring to. We know one of those is circumcision, i.e., a ceremonial law, because it is an issue in Galatians 2. He is also bringing in the the concepts of Deuteronomy chapter 27 within his conversation. So it seems to me that whatever 'law' Paul means here, he means at least circumcision and the concepts in Deuteronomy chapter 27. For he brings it into the conversation and those familiar with what he is referring to would think about the surrounding lessons of Deuteronomy 27:26.

Looking at the context of Deuteronomy 27:26 it appears that Deuteronomy 27:26 is referring to Deuteronomy 27:15-25 specifically and possibly all the way back to chapter 26 in a broader sense. Those 'curses' that Paul appears to be bringing into his Galatians 3 aurgement, along with the circumcision that started his conversation within Galatians are...Deu 27:15 -- carved or cast metal image, Deu 27:16 -- dishonor of father and mother, Deu 27:17 -- moving a neighbor's landmark, Deu 27:18 -- misleading a blind man on the road, Deu 27:19 -- perverting the justice due to the sojourner, Deu 27:20 -- one who lays with his fathers wife, Deu 27:21 one who lays with any kind of animal, Deu 27:22 -- one who lays with his sister, Deu 27:23 -- one who lays with his mother-in-law, Deu 27:24 -- striking down his neighbor in secret, Deu 27:25 -- takes a bribe to shed innocent blood.
The ceremonial law contained all the curses written in a book Deut 29:20-12 Gal 3:10 placed outside the ark as a witness against Deut 31:26. God's Ten Commandment written by God alone is perfect for converting the soul Psa 19:7 is not grievous 1 John 5:3 and is holy and righteous Rom 7:12 Psa 119:172 and Truth Psa 119:105
Although Deuteronomy chapter 26 can be said to be referencing cerimonial laws, I think.
Agreed
These topics in Deutoronomy 27 appear to be more than ceremonial. They appear to be related more to coveting, adultery, honor of father and mother, and murder. All of which are part of the 10 Commandments.
Agreed. Many of the ceremonial laws are sub-laws for the Ten Commandments. Jesus touched on this in Mat 5:18-30. The Ten Commandments are much broader than people think.
Right after this Deuteronomy quote, Paul says...

Interestingly, right after making the quote of Deuteronomy 27:26 (in Gal 3:10) and then this statement, above, in Galatians 3:11, Paul gives another OT quote from Leviticus 18:5. So he has sandwiched Gallatians 3:11 with OT quotes.
Yes, the curse of the law is not keeping God's commandments. You can read all the curses for not keeping and the blessings for keeping in Deut 28. The curse or condemnation of the law is death Rom 6:23 and that is still the curse, but through our faith in Jesus and by His great sacrifice Jesus gave us another option- eternal life. But we too must die of sin Romans 6 (being reborn) and as a new creature- we live differently meaning there must be a change- no longer living for sin, but living for Christ who knew no sin and kept all of the commandments John 15:10. Through our faith and with Christ in us, which means having a right relationship with Christ we no longer let sin reign over us Romans 6:12 so as Christ lives in use we are keeping God's commandments through faith and love Rev 14:12 Rom 3:31 1 John 5:3 John 14:15 Exo 20:6 which reconciles us back to Christ Rev 22:14

Do you think this is an accurate reading?
You seem to be on the right track. Keep studying and asking the Holy Spirit to guide you in all Truth. John 16:13

God bless!
 
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Dan Perez

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My favorite verse from Galatians is this one below.

Galatians 3:28: "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is no male and female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus."
Gal 3:28 begins ; There CANNOT // OV is a DISJUNCARIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE that there will never be JEWS nor Greeks in the Body of Christ , there CANNOT // is also a DIJUNCARITIVE PARTICLE , Male and Female or you ARE // ESTE is in the PRESENT TENSE , in Christ Jesus .

Also means OSAS

And Col 3:11 is very similar .

This also means that the 12 apostles are not in the BODY OF CHRIST .

dan p
 
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AlexB23

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Gal 3:28 begins ; There CANNOT // OV is a DISJUNCARIVE PARTICLE NEGATIVE that there will never be JEWS nor Greeks in the Body of Christ , there CANNOT // is also a DIJUNCARITIVE PARTICLE , Male and Female or you ARE // ESTE is in the PRESENT TENSE , in Christ Jesus .

Also means OSAS

And Col 3:11 is very similar .

This also means that the 12 apostles are not in the BODY OF CHRIST .

dan p
What's with the ALL CAPS, man? Anyone who is a true Christian is in the Body of Christ. Galatians 3:28 is a statement that we are all equal.
 
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Rose_bud

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.

Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,

In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,

It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,

Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...


So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
Hey there Paleouss:wave:

I thought I'd add to your post.
I agree, it's the Galations turning from the understanding that the blessing of God is received by faith and not by the works of the law.

Paul is livid with the Galatians and understandably so, they didnt receive the Spirit of God by becoming proselytes to the Jewish faith. They didnt receive the Spirit by performance. They received Him because they believed in the Promise - Jesus Christ. The good news that Paul was a herald of.
It was the same message that Cornelius received from Peter, and the same Spirit that filled Gentiles with power. Why the sudden need to go back? Pauls conclusion. They were being bewitched or put under a spell, overpowered and couldnt think rationally, hence he questions.

1. Did you receive the Spirit by becoming Jews or by believing in the promise?.
2. Do you want to start in the freedom then continue in bondage?
3. Did you suffer persecutions for your faith for nothing?.

Galatians 3:6-7
What good news was foretold to Abraham? The good news that "all nations will be blessed through Abraham". The good news for the Galations was that the Gentiles were always included in the plan of salvation, they didnt need the pre-requisite of the Mosaic covenant. The promise that life is available in God for everyone.

It was veiled for a time, but this was the good news that Paul had the privilege of being a minister of. That Gentiles were included in the plan of salvation, this was "his" gospel. His, because his audience was a specific group - not so much Jews but the (ethne).

Galatians 3:8. And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached this glad tidings/gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, "in you shall all the nations/gentiles be blessed."
Ethne is used interchangeably for nations and Gentiles Strongs 1484.

Abraham believed God and it was credited to Him as righteousness. What did Abraham believe? He believed that God was able to give him an heir, a son, one from his own body. His old dead body. He believed that God was able to make him a father of nations. There were no Jews yet, no divisions, only children of Abraham. But Abraham believed that God would honor his promise.

In addition the blessing... What is it? there are many nuances to the word bless, but in the Hebrew thought it means to kneel (barak), All nations would kneel before the Lord..Isaiah 45:23, Phillipians 2:11.

Gen 18:18... and all nations/gentiles (ethne) on earth will be blessed/kneel (barak) through him. And ironically be exalted because of Him, exalted to life.

Our submission and allegiance is to Him, by believing in Him, by believing that He is our salvation. We are raised to life and seated in heavenly places.
Those who are trusting in Jesus are submitting/aligning/kneeling along with Abraham. The father of the faith.

Galatians 3:9-13
The curse of the law, is an allusion to Deuteronomy as you pointed out. The Mosaic law was temporary. In addition Moses foresaw that the Jews would not uphold this Sinai covenant and that the Gentiles would receive the blessing.

Deuteronomy 32:21 b They made me jealous by what is no god and angered me with their worthless idols. I will make them envious by those who are not a people; I will make them angry by a nation that has no understanding.

Understanding of what ...of the law.

Once more the Gentiles were always going to receive the inheritance by grace through faith.

For indeed the just will live by faith... the law couldnt get them to submit to God in their hearts. Paul alludes to Habakkuk with this verse. For the original audience, Habakkuk complains that God is not addressing the injustice, not addressing those breaking covenant. That the law can do nothing about the wickedness and injustice of humanity.

Habakkuk 1:4 Therefore the law is paralyzed,
and justice never prevails.
The wicked hem in the righteous,
so that justice is perverted.

God responds that He will remedy the situation, but that He will use another nation - Babylon, to bring judgement. Habakkuk is not too thrilled, because Babylon is even more wicked. But God will also judge Babylon in return for their wickedness. There is no partiality with a just God.

Because the law was paralyzed Habakkuk had to believe God. Believe that God will fix what was broken. Take Him at his Word. Even though he doesn't have the evidence of it yet, he would believe.

Habakkuk 3:17-18 Though the fig tree does not bud
and there are no grapes on the vines,
though the olive crop fails
and the fields produce no food,
though there are no sheep in the pen
and no cattle in the stalls,
yet I will rejoice in the Lord,
I will be joyful in God my Savior.

The agreement was that if you wanted to be part of the covenant people, and live upright as a covenant person you had to obey all the covenant rules, not erring in any of them. Of course any failure would require sacrifice, but no sacrifice could clear the conscience.
He rescued us from the continuous cycle of failure as evident in Israel's history. Offering us a better covenant than the Mosaic covenant and laws. Offering us His Spirit to empower us to continue living a life of faithfulness.
The Spirit was given to Cornelius and others through divine intervention, that even the circumcised Jews were surprised (Acts 10:45). All they had to do was belief.

I'll leave it at this for now.
 
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Paleouss

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Galations turning from the understanding that the blessing of God is received by faith and not by the works of the law
Hello Rose_bud. Thank you for your contribution. I hope you had a great start to your week. You presented some good stuff. Thank you.

I noticed in your introduction you wrote "works of the law", regarding the study of Galatians chpt 3. It would appear that there is a debate about "works of the law" and its exact meaning (one I am not very familiar with at the moment). A debate on whether it means just the ceremonial laws or whether it also includes the moral laws also.

I found that Thomas Aquinas had written about Galatians 3:10-12...
“I answer that he is speaking here about keeping the commandments of the Law insofar as the Law consists of ceremonial precepts and moral precepts. This is the Law that is not of faith..."
(Commentary on Galatians 3:12; Aquinas Scripture Series, trans., F. R. Larcher, p. 83).
According to Aquinas, Galatians chpt 3 (specifically v12), he contends that the verse is speaking about "ceremonial precepts" (which I have understood to be the law of Moses) and moral precepts (which I understand to include the Ten Words of God, i.e., the Ten Commandments).

Digging deeper into the issue of "works of the law" topic. It appears that Augustine wrote, although from a different book than my Galatians study...
Although, therefore, the apostle seems to reprove and correct those who were being persuaded to be circumcised, in such terms as to designate by the word “law” circumcision itself and other similar legal observances, which are now rejected as shadows of a future substance by Christians who yet hold what those shadows figuratively promised; he at the same time, nevertheless, would have it to be clearly understood that the law, by which he says no man is justified, lies not merely in those sacramental [ceremonial] institutions which contained promissory figures, but also in those works by which whosoever has done them lives holily, and amongst which occurs this prohibition: “Thou shalt not covet.”

Is it possible to contend that it is not the law which was written on those two tablets that the apostle describes as “the letter that killeth,” but the law of circumcision and the other sacred rites which are now abolished? But then how can we think so, when in the law occurs this precept, “Thou shalt not covet,” by which very commandment, notwithstanding it being holy, just, and good, “sin,” says the apostle, “deceived me, and by it slew me”? What else can this be than “the letter” that “killeth”?
(On the Spirit and the Letter, NPNF, vol. 5, p. 93).
Aquinas in Galatians, and Augustine in Romans, seem to make clear that they think Paul does not want to confine "Law" to the ceremonies.

All of this does not speak to whether one should continue to obey or keep God's Law (that is the moral law) if now under grace.

Do you think Galatians 3:10, when it uses the phrase "works of the law" is referring to just the ceremonies or does it refer to the moral law as well?


Thanks again for your insights.
May God do a fruitful work through you.
 
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Rose_bud

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Hi Paleouss:wave:

Thank you for your kind response. Yes, I had a great start. Hope you having a good one too.

The context of Galatians as an isolated letter, is delivererd to its original audience within a specific context. Paul's gripe appears to be with those who are being persuaded to be circumcised. Although salvation would never be through keeping the Law of Moses (both ceremonial and moral). It served as a means to enlighten them regarding what is Gods standard and what is not. Also how to be in relationship with a Holy God and to practically live out those standards. It was given to a nation through an agreement that God would be their God, they would be set apart, i.e be different from their contemporaries of their time. Whatever success is derived from this agreement is only because God is faithful to His promise. Their are many similarities of how agreements were set up in ANE and the Sinai covenant. It sheds some light on the historical context of the wilderness happenings and the intent of the covenant.

As to works of the law in Galatians 3:10. It's juxtaposed with those who rely on faith in the previous verse. Something Paul does throughout. Covenant at Sinai (law), covenant of Promise (faith). The legal agreements of the Sinai included both blessings and curses. The curses was to ensure that the party kept to the agreement. The covenant is not split, into moral and ceremonial. It is one covenant.

I'm of the opinion that as a NT concept in its totality, we are not under the law (ceremonial and moral) we are under grace. All God asks is that we love Him and love others. And we cannot do this, save yielding to the Spirit of God. Only God measures up to God's righteous standard. We cannot keep the royal law if not for the Spirit. Jesus pointed this out in the Sermon on the Mount when He taught of a "higher" righteousness. Gods Holy standard is impossible to achieve, by ourself. When confronted with this Holiness, Isaiah responded in grief and despair.. Woe is me!!!.. (Isaiah 6:5)

In addition Paul says this..

Galatians 2:20 through the law I died to the law so that I might live for God. I have been crucified with Christ and I no longer live, but Christ lives in me. The life I now live in the body, I live by faith in the Son of God, who loved me and gave himself for me.

Paul died to this covenant of the Law, an agreement which included the Ten. He explains and provides an example of what that means in Romans 7.

Do you not know, brothers and sisters—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law has authority over someone only as long as that person lives?

....Before your eyes Jesus was crucified Gal 3:2. I don't think this means that they were at the crucifixion? But rather a play on words with bewitched, to put under a spell or as a figure of speech to give the evil eye. The point being the truth (a good eye if you will) is Jesus died, they died.

The life lived as a believer is a continuous living by faith. A continuous dependence on God to do what He asks us to do.

If we substitute any law whether ceremonial or moral. The example of "Do not covet" as a work of law it yields the same

Galatians 3:2 I would like to learn just one thing from you: Did you receive the Spirit by not coveting (ie. what you do, how you perform) or by believing what you heard?

Even upholding the moral law would never be able to grant salvation or give us the Spirit of promise. For we would not be able to measure up to God's righteous standard, except through Him.

Was the law (ceremonial and moral) sufficient to earn our salvation?. Could it ensure that we never die and live forever. Never.

Since you mention not coveting, the story of Jesus and the wealthy ruler comes to mind (Luke 18:18-25). He desired eternal life and asked Jesus good teacher how do I attain it.

Jesus responds only God is good. (An indication that He is God and not only a teacher). Jesus says you know the commandments. And he responds I kept them. But when Jesus asks him to sell, give to the poor and follow God. It becomes difficult.

I've heard some preachers say. Because he was covetous that is why Jesus told him to sell and give to the poor. Meaning he didn't really do everything (Ten Commandments) and couldn't enter the kingdom.
Rather, I understand it to mean that he could never uphold the righteous requirements of the law. Love the Lord with your all, your everything (heart, mind and soul - the Shema). The self-reliant will never achieve salvation. Whether they are reliant on the law or themselves, or anything else other than Jesus. The story is sandwiched between being like children to enter the kingdom (dependence/reliance on another) (Luke 18:17) and who that reliance should be on. Only with God it is possible. (Luke 18:27). By grace through faith, empowered by the Spirit.

Should we continue to uphold the law, ie. don't lie, don't steal? We can obey God's righteous requirements, when we abide in Christ by faith. We uphold it when we love God and love others. Not us but Christ working through us. He alone is glorified.
 
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fhansen

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.

Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,

In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,

It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,

Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...


So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
Right standing before God consists of reconciliation and unity with Him. Faith is the vehicle to that relationship which itself is the basis of man's justice or righteousness (alienation from Him being the essence of fallen man's injustice). The law, by itself cannot bring about that justice, i.e. it cannot justify.

One thought that arises is that the promises were different in the old covenant. The rewards for right standing with God were physical, worldly; eternal life wasn't really the focus yet.
 
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Grip Docility

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I have started a study of Galatians chapter 3. I am looking for agreement or disagreement on my exegesis. Or any additional insights.

It seems like the overall theme of the chapter is about faith vs works of the law. However, there are some interesting points that Paul makes.

Paul is telling the Galaitians that the 'physical' seeds of Abraham are not the seeds of the promise.

Then Paul goes on to say that the gospel promise came before the law. What? The gospel came before the law? Paul writes,

In Galatians 3:10-14 Paul talks about those in right standing with God will live by faith. And then in Galatians 3:15 Paul gives an example to explain what he is talking about. That is, the gospel (the promise of faith) was given before the law. Paul says,

It seems that Paul is saying, in his example, that the gospel promise is like a covenant that came before the law. Once that promise, or covenant, was given to Abraham then nothing can be added or taken away from that promise. So if the gospel promise was like a covenant, then the promise that right standing was to be by faith cannot be removed or annulled or replaced. Right standing in the eyes of God is to be by faith (starting with the promise to Abraham).

One of Paul's key points seems to be that the gospel promise, which Paul equates to a covenant (Gal 3:15-16), came before the law was given to Moses. In this way, the gospel promise of faith (Gal 8:-9) cannot be replaced by the law, i.e., legalism. In other words, God said to Abraham that right standing would be by faith. Therefore, God did not send the law to replace that fact. For "no one annuls" the covenant of faith given to Abraham "or adds to it once it has been ratified" (in this case to be ratified is to have the promise of God).

Paul appears to make this point, that the gospel promise which is like a covenant, cannot be changed by anything that comes after it. Paul says,

Paul continues this argument by adding, v18 "For if the inheritance comes by the law, it no longer comes by promise; but God gave it to Abraham by a promise."

After all this, Paul anticipates the question of "v19 Why then the law?". This would seem to be the logical next question. That is, if God had already established through a promise (i.e., covenant) to Abraham that right standing with God would start with faith. Then why was the law given? This is the right anticipated question of Paul's time because many of the Jewish people had understood the law as legalism, i.e., one starts right standing through works first toward the law. The thought of the day was that the law made one in right standing before God. But Paul makes the argument that this was never the case.

The reason Paul gives, at least in Galatians chpt 3 is...


So as to not make this first post so long, I'll stop there for now.


Peace by to you my brothers
Deep respect to you! Exegeses is a beautiful thing! Thank you for sharing this!
 
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