Why did Paul talk about tongue speaking only in 1 Corinthians?

[Guojing]

Here is my view.

Acts 18
After these things Paul departed from Athens, and came to Corinth;

2 And found a certain Jew named Aquila, born in Pontus, lately come from Italy, with his wife Priscilla; (because that Claudius had commanded all Jews to depart from Rome and came unto them.

3 And because he was of the same craft, he abode with them, and wrought: for by their occupation they were tentmakers.

4 And he reasoned in the synagogue every sabbath, and persuaded the Jews and the Greeks.

5 And when Silas and Timotheus were come from Macedonia, Paul was pressed in the spirit, and testified to the Jews that Jesus was Christ.

6 And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean; from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles.

7 And he departed thence, and entered into a certain man's house, named Justus, one that worshipped God, whose house joined hard to the synagogue.

The Corinth "church" was mainly in Justus's house, which if you read Acts 18:7, shared a common wall with the synagogue.

Once you are able to see that, you can understand better why Paul only talk about tongues in his Corinthian epistles and how he stated categorically that "Tongues are for a sign, not to believers but to unbelievers".

The Corinth church is the gentile church that is so close to the Jewish synagogue.

You can imagine if I am a Jew who rejects Christ as my messiah, as I visit the synagogue every Sabbath, I will keep hearing gentile believers speaking in actual foreign languages that they have not learnt.

I will recall Isaiah 28:11-12, as Paul cross referenced in 1 Corinthians 14:22, and understood that God is proclaiming judgement to my nation, just like it was for my rebellious ancestors who had to listen to the Akkadian language when they were in exile.

This is something that only Jewish unbelievers would have understood, not gentiles, the latter whom would have thought that that the Corinth church was full of mad believers. (1 Corinthians 14:23).

 

[swordsman1]

Another possible reason is that Corinth was a major international trade hub. There was a multitude of visiting foreigners milling around the port. Therefore God particularly endowed the Corinthians with the gift of tongues to convince the foreigners of the gospel. Hearing their own native tongues miraculously spoken they would be receptive to the gospel message (as happened on the day of Pentecost). They would then spread Christianity to their home countries.

Of course the Corinthians were also misusing their gift by speaking in foreign tongues during their house-church meetings which nobody in the congregation understood. This was the whole reason for Paul admonishing them in 1 Cor 14.

Unbelieving local Jews would be repelled by unrecognised foreign languages spoken in their midst. As you point out it was a sign of judgement to them as it was in Isaiah's prophecy of the invading Assyrians which Paul refers to in 1 Cor 14:21. However tongues could also be a positive authenticating sign to foreigners as it was at Pentecost. It was the local Jews who derided the disciples on that day (Acts 2:13-15), not the foreigners who recognized their languages and were amazed at the sign.

 

[Saint Steven]

What conclusion are you drawing from your topic title question?

Why did Paul talk about tongue speaking only in 1 Corinthians?​

 

[Guojing]

What conclusion are you drawing from your topic title question?

Why did Paul talk about tongue speaking only in 1 Corinthians?​

In the final 4 paragraphs

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Here is my view.

Acts 18
After these things Paul departed from Athens, and came to Corinth;

2 And found a certain Jew named Aquila, born in Pontus, lately come from Italy, with his wife Priscilla; (because that Claudius had commanded all Jews to depart from Rome and came unto them.

3 And because he was of the same craft, he abode with them, and wrought: for by their occupation they were tentmakers.

4 And he reasoned in the synagogue every sabbath, and persuaded the Jews and the Greeks.

5 And when Silas and Timotheus were come from Macedonia, Paul was pressed in the spirit, and testified to the Jews that Jesus was Christ.

6 And when they opposed themselves, and blasphemed, he shook his raiment, and said unto them, Your blood be upon your own heads; I am clean; from henceforth I will go unto the Gentiles.

7 And he departed thence, and entered into a certain man's house, named Justus, one that worshipped God, whose house joined hard to the synagogue.

The Corinth "church" was mainly in Justus's house, which if you read Acts 18:7, shared a common wall with the synagogue.

Once you are able to see that, you can understand better why Paul only talk about tongues in his Corinthian epistles and how he stated categorically that "Tongues are for a sign, not to believers but to unbelievers".

The Corinth church is the gentile church that is so close to the Jewish synagogue.

You can imagine if I am a Jew who rejects Christ as my messiah, as I visit the synagogue every Sabbath, I will keep hearing gentile believers speaking in actual foreign languages that they have not learnt.

I will recall Isaiah 28:11-12, as Paul cross referenced in 1 Corinthians 14:22, and understood that God is proclaiming judgement to my nation, just like it was for my rebellious ancestors who had to listen to the Akkadian language when they were in exile.

This is something that only Jewish unbelievers would have understood, not gentiles, the latter whom would have thought that that the Corinth church was full of mad believers. (1 Corinthians 14:23).

If your theory is correct, they would most likely be speaking about the "Good News" and not judgment.

Acts 2:11
"we hear in our own tongues the wonderful works of God ".
Blessings.

 

[Guojing]

If your theory is correct, they would most likely be speaking about the "Good News" and not judgment.

Acts 2:11
"we hear in our own tongues the wonderful works of God ".
Blessings.

But if that was the intent, why do you think Paul used Isaiah 28 instead, when he stated that tongues are for a sign to unbelieving Jews?

You do agree that, when Isaiah 28:11-12 were written, the Jews were in exile and under judgement then?

 

[Maria Billingsley]

But if that was the intent, why do you think Paul used Isaiah 28 instead, when he stated that tongues are for a sign to unbelieving Jews?

You do agree that, when Isaiah 28:11-12 were written, the Jews were in exile and under judgement then?

I try not to complicate things. I belive Paul was simply telling the Corinthians ( not Jews by the way) to stop acting immature like children basically, stop calling gibberish tongues authentic maybe? Anyhow, Paul is not very clear so one is driven to speculation unfortunately. I belive we must read His "tongues " lecture in full to come to an accurate conclusion. That being said.......

Here is the entire passage so we can( kind of) read in full context:

1 Corinthians
20 Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however, in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature.21 In the law it is written:

“With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,”
says the Lord.

22 Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe. 23 Therefore if the whole church comes together in one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those who are uninformed or unbelievers, will they not say that you are out of your mind? 24 But if all prophesy, and an unbeliever or an uninformed person comes in, he is convinced by all, he is convicted by all. 25 And thus the secrets of his heart are revealed; and so, falling down on his face, he will worship God and report that God is truly among you.

 

[Strong in Him]

Why did Paul talk about tongue speaking only in 1 Corinthians?​

We need to read the letter and find out what was going on in the church at the time.

There were big problems in Corinth.
Divisions - some believers followed Paul, some Apollos. Paul addresses this in 1 Corinthians 3.
Promiscuity - the belief that as they were saved, they could do as they liked - 1 Corinthians 5. They were bosting about this, 1 Corinthians 5:1 Corinthians 5:12.
Inequalities, particularly when observing the Lord's Supper - 1 Corinthians 11. Some were arriving early for the meal and eating what they wanted before the others arrived. Others were getting drunk.

It seems that the Corinthians weren't only boasting about their sexual behaviour, but about their spiritual gifts - some thought they were more important because they spoke in tongues. Paul told them that they were the body of Christ; each had their own part to play. He said that of all the gifts, the best way was love, and they should strive for love. He also said that tongues was only useful if someone had a gift of interpretation - otherwise no one would be able to understand. That the gift of prophecy was also important and, if they really wanted to boast, he spoke in tongues more than they did.

It seems none of the other churches had this problem.

 

[Guojing]

I try not to complicate things. I belive Paul was simply telling the Corinthians ( not Jews by the way) to stop acting immature like children basically, stop calling gibberish tongues authentic maybe? Anyhow, Paul is not very clear so one is driven to speculation unfortunately. I belive we must read His "tongues " lecture in full to come to an accurate conclusion. That being said.......

Here is the entire passage so we can( kind of) read in full context:

1 Corinthians
20 Brethren, do not be children in understanding; however, in malice be babes, but in understanding be mature.21 In the law it is written:

“With men of other tongues and other lips
I will speak to this people;
And yet, for all that, they will not hear Me,”
says the Lord.

22 Therefore tongues are for a sign, not to those who believe but to unbelievers; but prophesying is not for unbelievers but for those who believe. 23 Therefore if the whole church comes together in one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those who are uninformed or unbelievers, will they not say that you are out of your mind? 24 But if all prophesy, and an unbeliever or an uninformed person comes in, he is convinced by all, he is convicted by all. 25 And thus the secrets of his heart are revealed; and so, falling down on his face, he will worship God and report that God is truly among you.

Thanks, are you aware of the context of Isaiah 28, what was happening to the nation of Israel in that passage?

 

[Guojing]

We need to read the letter and find out what was going on in the church at the time.

There were big problems in Corinth.
Divisions - some believers followed Paul, some Apollos. Paul addresses this in 1 Corinthians 3.
Promiscuity - the belief that as they were saved, they could do as they liked - 1 Corinthians 5. They were bosting about this, 1 Corinthians 5:1 Corinthians 5:12.
Inequalities, particularly when observing the Lord's Supper - 1 Corinthians 11. Some were arriving early for the meal and eating what they wanted before the others arrived. Others were getting drunk.

It seems that the Corinthians weren't only boasting about their sexual behaviour, but about their spiritual gifts - some thought they were more important because they spoke in tongues. Paul told them that they were the body of Christ; each had their own part to play. He said that of all the gifts, the best way was love, and they should strive for love. He also said that tongues was only useful if someone had a gift of interpretation - otherwise no one would be able to understand. That the gift of prophecy was also important and, if they really wanted to boast, he spoke in tongues more than they did.

It seems none of the other churches had this problem.

Thanks, are you aware of the context of Isaiah 28, what was happening to the nation of Israel in that passage?

 

[Saint Steven]

I try not to complicate things. I belive Paul was simply telling the Corinthians ( not Jews by the way) to stop acting immature like children basically, stop calling gibberish tongues authentic maybe?

Wow. That is definitately NOT what he was saying. IMHO

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Thanks, are you aware of the context of Isaiah 28, what was happening to the nation of Israel in that passage?

Yes I am.

 

[Maria Billingsley]

Wow. That is definitately NOT what he was saying. IMHO

Well, there are several interpretations. I chose the simplest one. If you care to share yours that would be great. Thanks for engaging.

 

[Saint Steven]

Well, there are several interpretations. I chose the simplest one. If you care to share yours that would be great. Thanks for engaging.

As if "calling gibberish tongues authentic" is even an interpretation.
More like a snide remark. A smear against those who operate in spiritual gifts.

 

[Maria Billingsley]

As if "calling gibberish tongues authentic" is even an interpretation.
More like a snide remark. A smear against those who operate in spiritual gifts.

Um, I speak in tongues, so no snide remark from me. I belive tongues are actual languages.

 

[Guojing]

Yes I am.

So you knew that tongues were a sign of God's judgment on the nation of Israel during then, those Jews in exile heard babbling in a foreign tongue that they could not understand.

Thus, when Paul mentioned the same passage in 1 Corinthians 14:22 that tongues are a sign for unbelievers, why would you prefer to go back to Acts 2 instead, where those Jews at Pentecost understood the language that was spoken?

8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,

10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,

11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

The analogy would not fit correct?

 

[Maria Billingsley]

So you knew that tongues were a sign of God's judgment on the nation of Israel during then, those Jews in exile heard babbling in a foreign tongue that they could not understand.

Thus, when Paul mentioned the same passage in 1 Corinthians 14:22 that tongues are a sign for unbelievers, why would you prefer to go back to Acts 2 instead, where those Jews at Pentecost understood the language that was spoken?

8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?

9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,

10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,

11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.

The analogy would not fit correct?

I'm sorry. I dont see the correlation. It seems to me that even though Paul uses a few lines of Isaiah, that had to do about judgment , I can see him also using it as reference to his annoyance of no one understanding or interpreting tongues. Basically abusing the gift. The entire chapter is about reigning in its use in a public space.
In Acts 2 those who understood in their own language were the mockers and unbelievers. Additionally, all who were speaking at the same time, were clearly understood. That's why they marveled. Anyway, it's interesting to hear your interpretation, I know of it, but somehow I'm not convinced of it. Yet.
Thanks for engaging.

 

[Guojing]

I'm sorry. I dont see the correlation. It seems to me that even though Paul uses a few lines of Isaiah, that had to do about judgment , I can see him also using it as reference to his annoyance of no one understanding or interpreting tongues. Basically abusing the gift. The entire chapter is about reigning in its use in a public space.
In Acts 2 those who understood in their own language were the mockers and unbelievers. Additionally, all who were speaking at the same time, were clearly understood. That's why they marveled. Anyway, it's interesting to hear your interpretation, I know of it, but somehow I'm not convinced of it. Yet.
Thanks for engaging.

Sure no problem, thanks for engaging too.

 

[Strong in Him]

Thanks, are you aware of the context of Isaiah 28, what was happening to the nation of Israel in that passage?

Isaiah 28, judgement on the leaders of Ephraim and Judah, has nothing to do with the situation in Corinth, disorder and boasting in the church.

 

[Guojing]

Isaiah 28, judgement on the leaders of Ephraim and Judah, has nothing to do with the situation in Corinth, disorder and boasting in the church.

Paul used it as the context to state 1 Corinthians 14:22.

And you can still confidently claim it has nothing to do with it.