David Lamb
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- May 30, 2024
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But as I said, the very next words talk about deacons being the husband of one wife. If The wives/women in verse 11 were themselves deacons, how could they be the husband of one wife? And anyway, why employ a word meaning "wife" or "woman" to mean "deaconess"? As far as I know, the Greek word for "man" (I think it's "aner") is never used to mean "deacon".The 1 Timothy thought starts in verse 8, with "Deacons likewise..." So it's already discussing deacons. Then we get to verse 11 and the mention of the women/wives, and that's where it's not clear exactly what the author meant; the women deacons or the wives of deacons.
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