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WOMAN, why do you involve me?

tonychanyt

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In the Cana wedding, Jesus spoke to his mother in J 2:

4 “WOMAN, why do you involve me?” Jesus replied. “My hour has not yet come."
“Woman,
γύναι (gynai)
Noun - Vocative Feminine Singular
Strong's 1135: A woman, wife, my lady. Probably from the base of ginomai; a woman; specially, a wife.

BDAG:

The voc. (ὦ) γύναι is by no means a disrespectful form of address (Il. 3, 204; Od. 19, 221; Soph., Oed. R. 655; Chariton 3, 2, 1; 5, 9, 3; Cass. Dio 51, 12, 5: Augustus to Cleopatra; Jdth 11:1; Jos., Ant. 1, 252; 17, 74. Cp. Alexander’s reassuring ὦ μῆτηρ Diod S 17, 37, 6.—Only rarely is there a tone of disrespect in ὦ γύναι, as, e.g., Quint. Smyrn. 1, 575)
Was Jesus being disrespectful toward his mother?

I don't think so. Using G1135 in a disrespectful way was rare.

Jesus spoke to a Canaanite woman in Mt 15:

28b “O woman, great is your faith! Be it done for you as you desire.” And her daughter was healed instantly.
Jesus used G1135 respectfully in Mt 15:28.

Was Jesus being respectful toward his mother in J 2:4?

I don't think so. Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.

Similarly, J 19:

26 When Jesus saw his mother and the disciple whom he loved standing nearby, he said to his mother, “Woman [vocative], behold, your son!” 27 Then he said to the disciple, “Behold, your mother!” And from that hour the disciple took her to his own home.
Jesus spoke to the Samaritan woman at the well in J 4:

21b “Woman [vocative], believe me, the hour is coming when neither on this mountain nor in Jerusalem will you worship the Father.
On resurrection Sunday, the angels spoke to Mary Magdalene in J 20:

13b “Woman [vocative], why are you weeping?” She said to them, “They have taken away my Lord, and I do not know where they have laid him.”
Peter denied Jesus in Lk 22:

56 Then a servant girl, seeing him as he sat in the light and looking closely at him, said, “This man also was with him.” 57 But he denied it, saying, “Woman [vocative], I do not know him.”
Peter used the term a bit discourteously.

58 And a little later someone else saw him and said, “You also are one of them.” But Peter said, “Man [vocative], I am not.”
G1135 could be used in a respectful and disrespectful manner. In J 2:4, I think Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.
 

Mark Quayle

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In the Cana wedding, Jesus spoke to his mother in J 2:


“Woman,
γύναι (gynai)
Noun - Vocative Feminine Singular
Strong's 1135: A woman, wife, my lady. Probably from the base of ginomai; a woman; specially, a wife.

BDAG:


Was Jesus being disrespectful toward his mother?

I don't think so. Using G1135 in a disrespectful way was rare.

Jesus spoke to a Canaanite woman in Mt 15:


Jesus used G1135 respectfully in Mt 15:28.

Was Jesus being respectful toward his mother in J 2:4?

I don't think so. Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.

Similarly, J 19:


Jesus spoke to the Samaritan woman at the well in J 4:


On resurrection Sunday, the angels spoke to Mary Magdalene in J 20:


Peter denied Jesus in Lk 22:


Peter used the term a bit discourteously.


G1135 could be used in a respectful and disrespectful manner. In J 2:4, I think Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.
Post on implications into the rest of that sentence? Why did he ask, "What have I to do with you?"
 
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concretecamper

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Fulton Sheen

"He was telling His mother that she was virtually pronouncing a sentence of death over Him. Few are the mothers who send their sons to battlefields; but here was one who was actually hastening the hour of her Son’s mortal conflict with the forces of evil. If He agreed to her request, He would be beginning His hour of death and glorification. To the Cross He would go with double commission, one from His Father in heaven, the other from His mother on earth. As soon as He had consented to begin His “Hour,” He proceeded immediately to tell her that her relations with Him would be henceforth changed. Until then, during His hidden life, she had been known as the mother of Jesus. But now that He was launched on the work of Redemption, she would no longer be just His mother, but also the mother of all His human brethren whom He would redeem. To indicate this new relationship, He now addressed her, not as “Mother” but as the “Universal Mother” or “Woman.” What a ring those words had to people who lived in the light of the Old Testament. When Adam fell, God spoke to Satan and foretold that He would put enmity between his seed and “the Woman,” for goodness would have a progeny as well as evil."
 
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roman2819

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In the Cana wedding, Jesus spoke to his mother in J 2:


“Woman,
γύναι (gynai)
Noun - Vocative Feminine Singular
Strong's 1135: A woman, wife, my lady. Probably from the base of ginomai; a woman; specially, a wife.

BDAG:


Was Jesus being disrespectful toward his mother?

I don't think so. Using G1135 in a disrespectful way was rare.

Jesus spoke to a Canaanite woman in Mt 15:


Jesus used G1135 respectfully in Mt 15:28.

Was Jesus being respectful toward his mother in J 2:4?

I don't think so. Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.

Similarly, J 19:


Jesus spoke to the Samaritan woman at the well in J 4:


On resurrection Sunday, the angels spoke to Mary Magdalene in J 20:


Peter denied Jesus in Lk 22:


Peter used the term a bit discourteously.


G1135 could be used in a respectful and disrespectful manner. In J 2:4, I think Jesus used it in a more neutral tone of voice.

Try to appreciate human elements of communication when we read Scriptures. Not every sentence should be read in a 'factual' manner.

"Consider the human interaction when a Canaanite woman approached Jesus to heal her daughter, who was constantly attacked by demons [Matthew 15:21-28]. In those days, Jews despised the Gentiles, and the Lord said that it was not right to give the children’s bread to the dog. The words sounded harsh and sarcastic, but Jesus was cajoling and testing her. Not giving up, she replied that even dogs ate the crumbs that fell from the table, upon which the Lord was pleased to grant her request and told her to go in faith.

When Jesus interacted with people, He was not speaking factually or blandly, devoid of emotions. Indeed, He communicated with feelings and even humor at times. When the disciples could not cast out a demon, Jesus said, “You unbelieving and perverse generation, how long shall I stay with you? Bring the boy to me” [Matthew 17:16-18]. Though slightly exasperated, the Lord was really speaking in the same manner that siblings or close friends rebuke each other mildly. Do you see the human element in His words? Usually, we treat this passage as a lesson on faith, but appreciating the human factor in biblical characters will add life to the what we are reading.'

- adapted from Understanding Prayer, Faith and God's will' by Roman Ri
 
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tonychanyt

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When Jesus interacted with people, He was not speaking factually or blandly, devoid of emotions. Indeed, He communicated with feelings and even humor at times.
Right. So how did Jesus feel when he said, “Woman, why do you involve me? My hour has not yet come"?
 
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roman2819

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Right. So how did Jesus feel when he said, “Woman, why do you involve me? My hour has not yet come"?

I would like to hear your opinion first and know other's perspective. I would appreciate it if you give it some thoughts and give your opinion.
 
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tonychanyt

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roman2819

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Jesus said the time has not yet come for Him to do miracle, so the woman was putting Him in a spot. But He could handle the situation so he obliged and turned water in good wine. I believe He was pleased to be of help, to bring happiness on a happy auspicious occasion, and said those words to the woman in a light hearted and friendly manner. There may be more than this but I have to roll it over in my head to think further about it.
 
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