WHY IN ACTS 9:17 and 18 SAY THIS ?

[Aristarkos]

All you have to do is reply , to what I wrote in the above post , of 1 Cor 12:13 and in 1 Cor 15:29 ? Or what about

Rom 6:3 where , many were BAPTIZED // BAPTIZO INTO Christ Jesus were BAPTIZED // BAPTISO into his Death .

Question is how is anyone BAPTIED / BAPTISO into Christ Jesus into his Death ??

Simple answer !! Right

Then in Rom 6:4 we were buried together with Him BAPTISM into the DEATH ?

Since I do not believe in WATER // HDOR , BAPTISM , it is easy for me to answer //

It's not a matter of believing in water baptism, John did it so it is real. What matters more is what basically boils down to three questions:

1. To whom was water baptism given
2. When was water baptism given
3. Why was water baptism given

1. To Israel and Israel alone, there is plenty of proof of this but it is generally not accepted as such. Please note that a proselyte has become one of Israel through circumcision Exo. 12:48. It wasn't until Acts 10 when Peter needed to be called three times before he would go to a gentile, Acts 10:16 and the Jews were astonished because what happened to the Gentiles, Acts 10:45, that's why Acts 11:1 says "And the apostles and brethren that were in Judæa heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God." So the eunuch from Acts 8 cannot be have been a gentile but was at least a proselyte, because according to Acts 8:27 he was there to: "... and had come to Jerusalem for to worship".

2. During the time when the Kingdom of Heaven was still preached. The Kingdom of Heaven is what God promised to Israel throughout the O.T.. Like Dan. 2:44 "And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom (hence the Kingdom of heaven), which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people (thus to Israel only), but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever."

3. Those who confessed their sins — confirmed by a ritual washing called baptism in the N.T. — would escape the wrath to come. Mat. 3:7 "But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come?" or in other words the Day of the Lord that had come very close in those days. It didn't come because Israel rejected their King again. The first time was in 1 Sam. 8:7 "... for they have not rejected thee, but they have rejected me, that I should not reign over them.", the second time before the Lord Jesus was crucified and the third time after His resurrection.

This of course is in short.

Aristarkos

 

[AV1611VET]

1. To Israel and Israel alone,

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

 

[Aristarkos]

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

Like I said in an above post, find one just ONE bible text where anybody baptizes like Mat. 28:19 says. I'll wait.

Aristarkos

 

[AV1611VET]

Like I said in an above post, find one just ONE bible text where anybody baptizes like Mat. 28:19 says. I'll wait.

Aristarkos

Are you implying that -- since it is not written in the corpus of the text -- they didn't do it?

 

[Aristarkos]

Are you implying that -- since it is not written in the corpus of the text -- they didn't do it?

Isn't it obvious? If this was so important, in those days they would have started it as an example for us to follow, but they didn't. Let's look a little closer at the text.

Mat. 28:19 — 20 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world." Amen."

What are the things the Lord Jezus commanded "them"? We don't know, because the were not written, so how can we "teach" them? The last part (unto the end of the world) is in Greek "synteleias tou aiōnos" or in English "consummation of the aion". If that would be about the current aion we've found the first error in Scripture, because the "ye" have all died so the Lord cannot be with them till the consummation of the aion.

Therefor this is not written for the current aion and most certainly not for "us", it was spoken to the 11 (12) Israelite disciples, see vs. 16. No, they didn't do it, they knew it was for the aion to come. We read in Mat. 12:32 "And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world (Gr. aion), neither in the world (Gr, aion) to come."

Aristarkos

 

[AV1611VET]

Isn't it obvious? If this was so important, in those days they would have started it as an example for us to follow, but they didn't. Let's look a little closer at the text.

Mat. 28:19 — 20 "Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world." Amen."

What are the things the Lord Jezus commanded "them"? We don't know, because the were not written, so how can we "teach" them? The last part (unto the end of the world) is in Greek "synteleias tou aiōnos" or in English "consummation of the aion". If that would be about the current aion we've found the first error in Scripture, because the "ye" have all died so the Lord cannot be with them till the consummation of the aion.

Therefor this is not written for the current aion and most certainly not for "us", it was spoken to the 11 (12) Israelite disciples, see vs. 16. No, they didn't do it, they knew it was for the aion to come. We read in Mat. 12:32 "And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him: but whosoever speaketh against the Holy Ghost, it shall not be forgiven him, neither in this world (Gr. aion), neither in the world (Gr, aion) to come."

Aristarkos

This junk is why I'm KJVO.

 

[Dan Perez]

It's not a matter of believing in water baptism, John did it so it is real. What matters more is what basically boils down to three questions:

1. To whom was water baptism given
2. When was water baptism given
3. Why was water baptism given

1. To Israel and Israel alone, there is plenty of proof of this but it is generally not accepted as such. Please note that a proselyte has become one of Israel through circumcision Exo. 12:48. It wasn't until Acts 10 when Peter needed to be called three times before he would go to a gentile, Acts 10:16 and the Jews were astonished because what happened to the Gentiles, Acts 10:45, that's why Acts 11:1 says "And the apostles and brethren that were in Judæa heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God." So the eunuch from Acts 8 cannot be have been a gentile but was at least a proselyte, because according to Acts 8:27 he was there to: "... and had come to Jerusalem for to worship".

2. During the time when the Kingdom of Heaven was still preached. The Kingdom of Heaven is what God promised to Israel throughout the O.T.. Like Dan. 2:44 "And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom (hence the Kingdom of heaven), which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people (thus to Israel only), but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever."

3. Those who confessed their sins — confirmed by a ritual washing called baptism in the N.T. — would escape the wrath to come. Mat. 3:7 "But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come?" or in other words the Day of the Lord that had come very close in those days. It didn't come because Israel rejected their King again. The first time was in 1 Sam. 8:7 "... for they have not rejected thee, but they have rejected me, that I should not reign over them.", the second time before the Lord Jesus was crucified and the third time after His resurrection.

This of course is in short.

Aristarkos

If you do look at the Greek text , of Matt 3:7 the KJV has the word BAPTISM , the Greek text is really BAPTISMA and
the Greek word for WATER // HODUR is not in the Greek text .

Also in Eph 4:5 reads ONE // HEIS , Lord , ONE // HEIS , FAITH , ONE // HEIS , BAPTISMA !!

BAPTISMA is used 22 times from Matt 3:7 , THROUGH , 1 Peter 3:21 , so , check and see >

dan p

 

[Aristarkos]

If you do look at the Greek text , of Matt 3:7 the KJV has the word BAPTISM , the Greek text is really BAPTISMA and
the Greek word for WATER // HODUR is not in the Greek text .

I don't understand what you're getting at. This is about John the Baptist, he baptized with water according to his own saying: Mat. 3:6 "And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.". That is the river Jordan with is water.

Aristarkos

 

[Dan Perez]

It's not a matter of believing in water baptism, John did it so it is real. What matters more is what basically boils down to three questions:

1. To whom was water baptism given
2. When was water baptism given
3. Why was water baptism given

1. To Israel and Israel alone, there is plenty of proof of this but it is generally not accepted as such. Please note that a proselyte has become one of Israel through circumcision Exo. 12:48. It wasn't until Acts 10 when Peter needed to be called three times before he would go to a gentile, Acts 10:16 and the Jews were astonished because what happened to the Gentiles, Acts 10:45, that's why Acts 11:1 says "And the apostles and brethren that were in Judæa heard that the Gentiles had also received the word of God." So the eunuch from Acts 8 cannot be have been a gentile but was at least a proselyte, because according to Acts 8:27 he was there to: "... and had come to Jerusalem for to worship".

2. During the time when the Kingdom of Heaven was still preached. The Kingdom of Heaven is what God promised to Israel throughout the O.T.. Like Dan. 2:44 "And in the days of these kings shall the God of heaven set up a kingdom (hence the Kingdom of heaven), which shall never be destroyed: and the kingdom shall not be left to other people (thus to Israel only), but it shall break in pieces and consume all these kingdoms, and it shall stand for ever."

3. Those who confessed their sins — confirmed by a ritual washing called baptism in the N.T. — would escape the wrath to come. Mat. 3:7 "But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come?" or in other words the Day of the Lord that had come very close in those days. It didn't come because Israel rejected their King again. The first time was in 1 Sam. 8:7 "... for they have not rejected thee, but they have rejected me, that I should not reign over them.", the second time before the Lord Jesus was crucified and the third time after His resurrection.

This of course is in short.

Aristarkos

# 1 To whom was WATER // HUDOR , BAPTISM // BAPTISO GIVEN ; John 1:31 , to Israel

# 2 When was WATER // HUDOR , BAPTISM // BAPTISO , given , to Israel

# 3 Why was WATER // HUDOR , BAPTISM // BAPTIZO , Acts 1:5 .

dan p

 

[Dan Perez]

Matthew 28:19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:

So what does it mean " ALL NATIONS // ETHNOS ," mean ??

In John 11:48 and the Romans shall come and take away both our PLACE and NATION // ETHNOS , whose Nation is John mean ??

In John 11:50 says , that ONE MAN should DIE ( meaning Christ ) for the people , and that the WHOLE NATION // ETHNOS

perish not

Verse 50 The high priest prophesied that Jesus die for that NATION // ETHNOS .

It is obvious that NATION // ETHNOS is Israel and all those Jew that all are scattered abroad all in James 1:1 means !!

dan p

 

[Dan Perez]

We don't HAVE to be baptized for our salvation.

Baptism and the Lord's Table are ordinances, not sacraments.

And I agree that that the Lord's Table are not sacraments and then you believe that WE don't have to be BAPTIZED for our salvation and am with you on that point . Good that there are more on the DISPENSATIONAL section >

dan p

 

[AV1611VET]

So what does it mean " ALL NATIONS // ETHNOS ," mean ??

 

[AV1611VET]

And I agree that that the Lord's Table are not sacraments and then you believe that WE don't have to be BAPTIZED for our salvation and am with you on that point . Good that there are more on the DISPENSATIONAL section >

dan p

Then why are we having this conversation?

 

[Dan Perez]

Then why are we having this conversation?

Maybe Acts 1:5 will be better understood >

Acts 1:5 reads , For John indeed BAPTIZED with water ,

but you will be BAPTIZED with Holy Sprit not many of these days after ,

John used WATER // HUDOR , PERIOD !!

And the HOLY SPIRIT in Acts 1:5 does not use water !!

Do you see that ?

dan p

 

[AV1611VET]

John used WATER // HUDOR , PERIOD !!

What should he have used? jello?

What would YOU use, if you baptized someone?

And the HOLY SPIRIT in Acts 1:5 does not use water !!

Do you see that ?

Sure do.

Looks to me like everyone in this dispensation is baptized twice.

Once by God, when he immerses the convert in the Holy Ghost.

And once by the baptizer, when he immerses the convert in water.

John the [Independent Fundamental] Baptist had the right order.

Matthew 3:1 In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea,
2 And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.

Matthew 3:5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,
6 And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.

Notice he didn't baptize them until AFTER they got saved.

We call that "believer's baptism".

Now look what John did, when some came to be baptized WITHOUT getting saved first:

Matthew 3:7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come?
8 Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance:

He refused to baptize them unless they got saved first.

 

[Aristarkos]

John the [Independent Fundamental] Baptist had the right order.

Matthew 3:1 In those days came John the Baptist, preaching in the wilderness of Judaea,
2 And saying, Repent ye: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.

Matthew 3:5 Then went out to him Jerusalem, and all Judaea, and all the region round about Jordan,
6 And were baptized of him in Jordan, confessing their sins.

Notice he didn't baptize them until AFTER they got saved.

We call that "believer's baptism".

Now look what John did, when some came to be baptized WITHOUT getting saved first:

Matthew 3:7 But when he saw many of the Pharisees and Sadducees come to his baptism, he said unto them, O generation of vipers, who hath warned you to flee from the wrath to come?
8 Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance:

He refused to baptize them unless they got saved first.

Where does it say they were saved? I only read in these texts they repented their previous behavior, confessing their sins.

Aristarkos

 

[AV1611VET]

Where does it say they were saved? I only read in these texts they repented their previous behavior, confessing their sins.

Aristarkos

Whether they got saved or not, John gave the right order of events: repentance unto salvation, then water baptism.

We baptize those who PROFESS salvation.

As to whether or not they POSSESS salvation is between them and the LORD.

 

[Aristarkos]

Whether they got saved or not, John gave the right order of events: repentance unto salvation, then water baptism.

Repentance unto salvation? Only Paul talks about these words (2 Cor. 7:10) but he didn't baptize anyone but three.

We baptize those who PROFESS salvation.

In Scripture only those who repented and confessed their sins are water baptized.

As to whether or not that POSSESS salvation is between them and the LORD.

Pouring water on someone's head has never saved anyone. Unfortunately you seem to categorize what I say as junk.

Aristarkos

 

[AV1611VET]

Repentance unto salvation?

Yes.

Only Paul talks about these words (2 Cor. 7:10) ...

So? How many have you baptized?

... but he didn't baptize anyone but three.

So?

In Scripture only those who repented and confessed their sins are water baptized.

And in that order, as John the IFB stipulated.

Pouring water on someone's head has never saved anyone.

That is correct.

Neither has immersing.

Which, by the way, full immersion is the proper procedure.

Unfortunately you seem to categorize what I say as junk.

According to your last post, we both seem to be on the same page here.

 

[Aristarkos]

According to your last post, we both seem to be on the same page here.

Then we're done talking.

Aristarkos