WHAT IS THE MENING OF MATT 26:26 AND 27 ?In Matt 26:

[T.i.m.o.t.h.y.]

You apply Luke 12:33 to yourself literally, or the usual "If God REALLY spoke Luke 12:33 to me, THEN I will obey"?

I would only provide Biblical examples of God speaking to someone and connecting verses along those lines. Your idea of what's "usual" is entirely yours.

 

[Guojing]

I would only provide Biblical examples of God speaking to someone and connecting verses along those lines. Your idea of what's "usual" is entirely yours.

So how would you apply Luke 12:33? You have yet to answer the question.

If you don't wish to answer, just say so, instead of dangling a "In short, all I can say is, yes, I apply it to me."

 

[Dan Perez]

The New King James Version shows more clearly what v27 means:

“Then He took the cup, and gave thanks, and gave it to them, saying, "Drink from it, all of you.” (Mt 26:27 NKJV)

Unsure how this is connected with Dispensationalism though.

There are Lord's supper , one in Matt 26:26 and 27 for Israel !!

The Lord's supper is in 1 Cor 11:23-34 !!

dan p

 

[T.i.m.o.t.h.y.]

So how would you apply Luke 12:33? You have yet to answer the question.

If you don't wish to answer, just say so, instead of dangling a "In short, all I can say is, yes, I apply it to me."

I have been answering your question.

It's not as if I picked out the verse to give answer to. You did, and you have continued to push me into answering in a way that you want me to.

I've several times recommended you to ask someone else but you still want me to answer. Why don't you wish to stop posting to me?

 

[Guojing]

I have been answering your question.

It's not as if I picked out the verse to give answer to. You did, and you have continued to push me into answering in a way that you want me to.

I've several times recommended you to ask someone else but you still want me to answer. Why don't you wish to stop posting to me?

So you regard your vague statement "In short, all I can say is, yes, I apply it to me" without elaborating, as an answer.

Alright then, let us move on from this

 

[Dan Perez]

There are Lord's supper , one in Matt 26:26 and 27 for Israel !!

The Lord's supper is in 1 Cor 11:23-34 !!

dan p

AND you have not answered # 43 of Matt 26:26-27 given to??

Or is where is 1 Cor 24 : 24 -34 given too ?

Just asking you ??

dan p

 

[Eternally Grateful]

In Matt 26:26 Jesus is addressing the 12 apostles >

But the 12 apostles are ones that are preaching to Israel , the Gospel of the Kingdom

And verse 29 Jesus will NOT // is a DISJUNCATIVE PARTICIPLE NEGATIVE and means Jesus will NVERRRRRRRRRR ever drink it a new with you in my Father's Kingdom .

Verse 28 says , which is my BLOOD of the NEW COVENANT !!

Which is all Israel and all the 4 gospels were written to Israel , period !!

Also the BODY of CHRIST is not part of the NEW COVENANT .

dan p

1. Your wrong, about the 4 gospel being to Israel only
Matt was written to a jewish or hebrew audience
Mark was written to a gentile audience
Luke was written to a gentile leader (theopholis) and also has a gentile tone
John is prety much a more theological gospel. and is applical to both jew and gentile alike

2. The lords supper was given to the 12. Who were to take the gospel. first to the jew, then to samaria then to the ends of the earth (gentiles)

so I do not see this with any dispensational view at all. and am as confused as david lamb is

 

[Dan Perez]

AND you have not answered # 43 of Matt 26:26-27 given to??

Or is where is 1 Cor 24 : 24 -34 given too ?

Just asking you ??

dan p

AND Luke 22:17 says that Jesus gave thanks , and said , Take this and DIVIDE it among yourselves !!

They did not drink from ONLY one CUP!!

I have answered # 43 !!

dan p