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What is Original Sin?

bjh

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I guess the best definition of Original Sin comes from Romans 5:12, "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:" (KJV)

All are guilty because Adam's sinful nature passed on through his bloodline.
 
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OrthodoxyUSA

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JimfromOhio

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from studying the scriptures.... it was Lucifer (became Satan) and his followers sinned first before Adam and Eve were created.

After Adam and Eve were created in God's image, they were perfect, sinless and completely blameless. When God created Adam and Eve, He planned inside them "free-will" to choose. Then God planned ONE tree that they were not to touch. Satan came along tempted Eve to sin against God and then Eve encouraged Adam to sin.

Like bjh said in his post, "I guess the best definition of Original Sin comes from Romans 5:12, "Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:" (KJV) All are guilty because Adam's sinful nature passed on through his bloodline."

I agree with him.
 
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Svt4Him

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Diane_Windsor said:
I find this to be a very vague term, and really have no clue :scratch: as to what Original Sin is.

Do the East and the West view it differently?

Any takers?

Diane
:)

IMO it's a bad doctrine that has little Biblical backing. Original sin is the belief that we are all born in sin and sinful after that. It's taken from the verse posted above, but the verse said sin entered the world, not the people. It will enter the people, as all will sin because we have a selfish nature, but a child born is not born 'in sin'. The other verse used for this is David when he said in sin his mother birthed him, but I tend to believe David's mother was in sin. That would explain why David was not brought to the prophet with the rest of Jesse's sons. It also makes sense as sex in marriage is not sin, and children are a gift from God.
 
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bjh

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Svt4Him said:
IMO it's a bad doctrine that has little Biblical backing. Original sin is the belief that we are all born in sin and sinful after that. It's taken from the verse posted above, but the verse said sin entered the world, not the people. It will enter the people, as all will sin because we have a selfish nature, but a child born is not born 'in sin'. The other verse used for this is David when he said in sin his mother birthed him, but I tend to believe David's mother was in sin. That would explain why David was not brought to the prophet with the rest of Jesse's sons. It also makes sense as sex in marriage is not sin, and children are a gift from God.

Problem with that thought is that David is always considered Jesse's son. (1 Sam 17:17; 1 Chronicles 29:26; Isaiah 11:1, 10; Acts 13:22; Romans 15:12)

As for the "little Biblical backing"...
"The wicked are estranged from the womb; those who speak lies go astray from birth." (Psalm 58:3)
" Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. (Ephesians 2:3)

Even doctrines with little Biblical support are still doctrines. God forbid that we should find ourselves before God and tell Him, "Well, you only told me three times. How was I to know?"
 
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gorion

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Actually the idea that we are born with Adam's guilt has no biblical support and is a relatively new doctrine. Svt4Him is right on. We are indeed all sinners but only guilty of our own sins. Adam brought sin and death into the world which is his legacy, but this is exactly what Christ came to overcome. He overcame sin and death so it would no longer have a hold over us. We are no longer slaves to it.
 
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BigNorsk

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Romans 5:12-21 NET
(12) So then, just as sin entered the world through one man and death through sin, and so death spread to all people because all sinned —
(13) for before the law was given, sin was in the world, but there is no accounting for sin when there is no law.
(14) Yet death reigned from Adam until Moses even over those who did not sin in the same way that Adam (who is a type of the coming one) transgressed.
(15) But the gracious gift is not like the transgression. For if the many died through the transgression of the one man, how much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one man Jesus Christ multiply to the many!
(16) And the gift is not like the one who sinned. For judgment, resulting from the one transgression, led to condemnation, but the gracious gift from the many failures led to justification.
(17) For if, by the transgression of the one man, death reigned through the one, how much more will those who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness reign in life through the one, Jesus Christ!
(18) Consequently, just as condemnation for all people came through one transgression, so too through the one righteous act came righteousness leading to life for all people.
(19) For just as through the disobedience of the one man many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of one man many will be made righteous.
(20) Now the law came in so that the transgression may increase, but where sin increased, grace multiplied all the more,
(21) so that just as sin reigned in death, so also grace will reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.


Note that all sinned through Adam, some would say that it is just our nature is changed but that doesn't seem to me to satisfy the text, I believe it is indeed counted as real sin though it has also changed our nature.

In vs 13 and 14 death reigned even before the law, why, because of original sin. The law wasn't there, so there wasn't sin against the law, yet everyone was responsible for the transgression against the original law-to not eat of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.

Now that doesn't seem fair to us, why should we be guilty because of Adam? Yet we find as the chapter goes on that just as Adam's sin was imputed to all, Christ's righteousness is imputed to us. Original sin is the "flip" side of how God saves us from our sins. If we didn't receive death through Adam, we wouldn't receive life through Christ. Remember those sermons where you were told how Adam was a "type" of Christ. This is what they were talking about. Through one man, all are affected. Adam affected us one way, Christ the other.

Now we could howl and complain that we are not responsible for Adam's sin but it is a reflection both of God's mercy and his righteousness. Without this, when we sin, and we would all sin, there would be no way for God to save us. Due to his nature, sin requires a payment, for us, he has paid the penalty. If sin and therefore righteousness could not be imputed we would be left to pay the penalty ourselves.

Marv
 
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holyrokker

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Psalm 51:5 - "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me." KJV

This is a Hebrew poetic parallelism, with the second line of the verse saying the same thing as the first line in a slightly different way. The first verb, of which David is the subject, is in the Pulal tense (as is "made" in Job 15:7 ), which is an idiom used to refer to creation or origins, and is the 'passive' form of Polel ("formed": Ps 90:2 Prov. 26:10 ).

The subject of this verse is NOT the state or constitution of David's nature as a sinner at, or before, his birth. The subject is, as the verse clearly states, the `circumstances' of his conception- the sexual union which produced him was an act of sin, and addresses the unrighteousness of his mother's act, not anything (such as a sin nature) inherent within himself.

David had two half-sisters (Zeruiah, Abigail).....:

1CHRON 2:13-16 “And Jesse begat his firstborn Eliab, and Abinadab the second, and Shimma the third, Nethaneel the fourth, Raddai the fifth, Ozem the sixth, David the seventh: Whose sisters were Zeruiah, and Abigail. And the sons of Zeruiah; Abishai, and Joab, and Asahel, three. And Abigail bare Amasa: and the father of Amasa was Jether the Ishmeelite.”

....and the father of David's half-sisters was not Jesse, but Nahash:

2Sam 17:25 “And Absalom made Amasa captain of the host instead of Joab: which Amasa was a man's son, whose name was Ithra an Israelite, that went in to Abigail the daughter of Nahash, sister to Zeruiah Joab's mother.”

Nahash, the father of Zeruiah and Abigal, David's half-sisters, was an Ammonite king:

1Sam 11:1 “Then Nahash the Ammonite came up, and encamped against Jabeshgilead: and all the men of Jabesh said unto Nahash, Make a covenant with us, and we will serve thee.”

1Sam 12:12 “And when ye saw that Nahash the king of the children of Ammon came against you, ye said unto me, Nay; but a king shall reign over us: when the LORD your God was your king.”

David's father was Jesse, not Nahash. Zeruiah and Abigal were David's half-sisters through his mother's previous marriage to Nahash. This would also help explain why Nahash showed kindness to David, perhaps out of respect for David's mother, Nahash’s former wife and the mother of two of Nahash's children.

2Sam 10:2 “Then said David, I will show kindness unto Hanun the son of Nahash, as his father shewed kindness unto me. And David sent to comfort him by the hand of his servants for his father. And David's servants came into the land of the children of Ammon.”

David's mother was most likely the second wife of Jesse, the first wife being the mother of David's half-brothers. Jesse’s first wife's standing before the 'righteousness of the law', (her not having been married to, or the concubine of, a heathen king, as was David’s mother), would have been superior to that of David's mother, and explains why David's half-brothers, Jesse's other sons, would have felt they were superior to David, and why he would be accused of being prideful, for thinking he was as good as them....

1Sam 17:28-30 “And Eliab his eldest brother heard when he spake unto the men; and Eliab's anger was kindled against David, and he said, Why camest thou down hither? and with whom hast thou left those few sheep in the wilderness? I know thy pride, and the naughtiness of thine heart; for thou art come down that thou mightest see the battle. And David said, What have I now done? Is there not a cause? And he turned from him toward another, and spake after the same manner: and the people answered him again after the former manner.”

...and why David was not considered, by his father Jesse, as `true' a son as his half-brothers. Samuel had called Jesse and his sons, and thus expected `all' his sons, to the sacrifice (1Sam 16:5,11). Jesse, having been told to bring `his sons' by a prophet of the Lord everyone feared (1Sam 16:4), was confident he had obeyed the prophet, even knowing he did not bring David....

1Sam 16:11 “And Samuel said unto Jesse, Are here all thy children? And he said, There remaineth yet the youngest, and, behold, he keepeth the sheep. And Samuel said unto Jesse, Send and fetch him: for we will not sit down till he come hither.”

....which would be consistent with God's sometimes choosing that which men esteemed as worthless (the `least') to be the greatest: (Gideon- Jud 6:15; King Saul- 1Sam 9:21; Jesus- Mt 2:6, Lk 9:48)

David's mother was apparently a Jewish woman, because `no Ammonite shall enter the congregation of the Lord to the 10th generation’ (Deu 23:3), and yet in PS 86:16 and PS 116:16, David refers to himself as "the son of thy handmaid", which would seem to testify to his mother's relationship with the Lord. David's mother was, in the eyes of Jewish law, considered `defiled' by her previous relationship to an Ammonite.

 
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bjh

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holyrokker said:
Psalm 51:5 - "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me." KJV

This is a Hebrew poetic parallelism, with the second line of the verse saying the same thing as the first line in a slightly different way. The first verb, of which David is the subject, is in the Pulal tense (as is "made" in Job 15:7 ), which is an idiom used to refer to creation or origins, and is the 'passive' form of Polel ("formed": Ps 90:2 Prov. 26:10 ).

The subject of this verse is NOT the state or constitution of David's nature as a sinner at, or before, his birth. The subject is, as the verse clearly states, the `circumstances' of his conception- the sexual union which produced him was an act of sin, and addresses the unrighteousness of his mother's act, not anything (such as a sin nature) inherent within himself.

David had two half-sisters (Zeruiah, Abigail).....:

1CHRON 2:13-16 “And Jesse begat his firstborn Eliab, and Abinadab the second, and Shimma the third, Nethaneel the fourth, Raddai the fifth, Ozem the sixth, David the seventh: Whose sisters were Zeruiah, and Abigail. And the sons of Zeruiah; Abishai, and Joab, and Asahel, three. And Abigail bare Amasa: and the father of Amasa was Jether the Ishmeelite.”

....and the father of David's half-sisters was not Jesse, but Nahash:

2Sam 17:25 “And Absalom made Amasa captain of the host instead of Joab: which Amasa was a man's son, whose name was Ithra an Israelite, that went in to Abigail the daughter of Nahash, sister to Zeruiah Joab's mother.”

Nahash, the father of Zeruiah and Abigal, David's half-sisters, was an Ammonite king:

1Sam 11:1 “Then Nahash the Ammonite came up, and encamped against Jabeshgilead: and all the men of Jabesh said unto Nahash, Make a covenant with us, and we will serve thee.”

1Sam 12:12 “And when ye saw that Nahash the king of the children of Ammon came against you, ye said unto me, Nay; but a king shall reign over us: when the LORD your God was your king.”

David's father was Jesse, not Nahash. Zeruiah and Abigal were David's half-sisters through his mother's previous marriage to Nahash. This would also help explain why Nahash showed kindness to David, perhaps out of respect for David's mother, Nahash’s former wife and the mother of two of Nahash's children.

2Sam 10:2 “Then said David, I will show kindness unto Hanun the son of Nahash, as his father shewed kindness unto me. And David sent to comfort him by the hand of his servants for his father. And David's servants came into the land of the children of Ammon.”

David's mother was most likely the second wife of Jesse, the first wife being the mother of David's half-brothers. Jesse’s first wife's standing before the 'righteousness of the law', (her not having been married to, or the concubine of, a heathen king, as was David’s mother), would have been superior to that of David's mother, and explains why David's half-brothers, Jesse's other sons, would have felt they were superior to David, and why he would be accused of being prideful, for thinking he was as good as them....

1Sam 17:28-30 “And Eliab his eldest brother heard when he spake unto the men; and Eliab's anger was kindled against David, and he said, Why camest thou down hither? and with whom hast thou left those few sheep in the wilderness? I know thy pride, and the naughtiness of thine heart; for thou art come down that thou mightest see the battle. And David said, What have I now done? Is there not a cause? And he turned from him toward another, and spake after the same manner: and the people answered him again after the former manner.”

...and why David was not considered, by his father Jesse, as `true' a son as his half-brothers. Samuel had called Jesse and his sons, and thus expected `all' his sons, to the sacrifice (1Sam 16:5,11). Jesse, having been told to bring `his sons' by a prophet of the Lord everyone feared (1Sam 16:4), was confident he had obeyed the prophet, even knowing he did not bring David....

1Sam 16:11 “And Samuel said unto Jesse, Are here all thy children? And he said, There remaineth yet the youngest, and, behold, he keepeth the sheep. And Samuel said unto Jesse, Send and fetch him: for we will not sit down till he come hither.”

....which would be consistent with God's sometimes choosing that which men esteemed as worthless (the `least') to be the greatest: (Gideon- Jud 6:15; King Saul- 1Sam 9:21; Jesus- Mt 2:6, Lk 9:48)

David's mother was apparently a Jewish woman, because `no Ammonite shall enter the congregation of the Lord to the 10th generation’ (Deu 23:3), and yet in PS 86:16 and PS 116:16, David refers to himself as "the son of thy handmaid", which would seem to testify to his mother's relationship with the Lord. David's mother was, in the eyes of Jewish law, considered `defiled' by her previous relationship to an Ammonite.

Okay. Even with all this, does it disprove the idea of original sin? The other passages still seem to hold. Don't they? (Again, the ones that I see...Psalm 58:3; Ephesians 2:3; Romans 5:12-21) Is there enough evidence from Scripture to contradict and nullify original sin?
 
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Diane_Windsor

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Svt4Him said:
IMO it's a bad doctrine that has little Biblical backing. Original sin is the belief that we are all born in sin and sinful after that. It's taken from the verse posted above, but the verse said sin entered the world, not the people. It will enter the people, as all will sin because we have a selfish nature, but a child born is not born 'in sin'. The other verse used for this is David when he said in sin his mother birthed him, but I tend to believe David's mother was in sin. That would explain why David was not brought to the prophet with the rest of Jesse's sons. It also makes sense as sex in marriage is not sin, and children are a gift from God.

Can you elaborate on the final sentence please? I'm not following you.

Diane
:wave:
 
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Svt4Him

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bjh said:
Problem with that thought is that David is always considered Jesse's son. (1 Sam 17:17; 1 Chronicles 29:26; Isaiah 11:1, 10; Acts 13:22; Romans 15:12)

As for the "little Biblical backing"...
"The wicked are estranged from the womb; those who speak lies go astray from birth." (Psalm 58:3)
" Among them we too all formerly lived in the lusts of our flesh, indulging the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest. (Ephesians 2:3)

Even doctrines with little Biblical support are still doctrines. God forbid that we should find ourselves before God and tell Him, "Well, you only told me three times. How was I to know?"

And the problem with this is that God blesses children so it isn't really sin if two people have sex. As for Psalms, pray tell what lies a child speaks. As for Ephesians, that verse has nothing to do with children. They were by nature children of wrath, fair enough. Can you explain how that means all children are sinful, as Jesus really didn't ask like children are children of wrath when He said suffer the children to come to me, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven? But lets not gloss over David for a sec. Where is sin in conception between married people? But let's do a further study, from a different line:

Let us first spend some time looking at the verse itself. It reads in the KJV, "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me." The word "shapen" means "be brought forth" (Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Lexicon, p. 297). It appears in the following verses:



  • "Art thou the first man that was born? or wast thou made before the hills?" (Job 15:7)

    "When there was no depths, I was brought forth; when there were no fountains abounding with water." (Prov. 8:24)

    "Before the mountains were settled, before the hills was I brought forth."(Prov. 8:25)

Clearly, "shapen" in Psalms 51:5 has reference to David's being born. Therefore, the text simply refers to the situation surrounding his conception and actual birth. It does not talk about his state at birth. To illustrate this, one might say, "In drunkenness did my father beat me." This would not make the beaten person drunk; it simply describes the situation wherein he was beaten. Similarly, David's being conceived and brought forth in sin did not make him a sinner.

Because of the danger of this verse's being mistranslated, as in the case of the NIV, let us notice how it is rendered in some popular versions of various countries. Please notice the following:



  • KJV: "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me."

    ASV: "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity; And in sin did my mother conceive me."

    NASV: "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me."

    NKJV: "Behold, I was brought forth in iniquity, And in sin my mother conceived me."

    Revised Elberfeld Translation (German): "See, in guilt was I born, and in sin had my mother conceived me."

    Zurich Bible (Swiss): "See, in guilt was I born, and in sins had my mother me conceived."

    Reina-Valera Version (Spanish): "Behold, in evil I have been formed, And in sin my mother conceived me."

    Ecumenical (Czech): "Yes, I was born in iniquity. In sin did my mother conceive me."

    Kralicka (Czech): "Yes, I am born in iniquity. In sin did my mother conceive me."

    NRV (Italian): "Behold, I have been begotten in (the) iniquity, my mother has conceived me in (the sin)." (the standard, Non-Catholic version in Italy)

    IEP and CEI (Italian): "Behold, in (the) fault I have been begotten, in (the) sin has conceived me my mother." (the two most important Catholic versions in Italy)

    Norwegian Bible: "See, I was born in sin and my mother has conceived me in sin."

Please notice that in all these translations, David never says he was born "with" sin. That sinful actions surrounded his birth is clearly taught; that sin was passed on to him from his mother is not.

Psalms 51:5 In Its Context
All major translations have a superscription penned to Psalms 51 which says that it was written when Nathan the prophet confronted him with regards to his sin with Bathsheba. David committed a number of sins at this time, adultery, deceit and murder among them. His prayer in this Psalm contains several things: 1) A confession of his sins (vs. 3-4); 2) A plea for mercy and complete forgiveness (vs. 1,7,9,14); 3) Statements of contrition (vs. 3, 17); 4) His understanding of God's desires (vs. 4,6,16-17); 3); 5) A plea for restoration to his former state (vs. 10,12); 6) A promise to glorify God as a forgiven one (vs. 13-15).

Amidst the above verses, David writes, "Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me" (v. 5). Some things about this verse are clear from its context:

  1. David was seeking forgiveness for sins he had committed - not sins he had inherited. Note the following things which show this to be true. He called his sins "transgressions" (vs. 1, 3). This comes from a verb which means "rebel, transgress" (Brown-Driver-Briggs-Gesenius Lexicon, p. 833). This harmonizes with David's words in verse 4, "Against thee, thee only, have I sinned and done this evil." David had actively committed the sins he confesses herein, not passively inherited them.


  2. David was not seeking an excuse for his sins (vs. 3-4). He owned them as something he personally had done, not as something he committed as a result of his inherent condition (cp 2 Sam. 12:13).


  3. He contrasts the situation outside of him at his birth with God's desire for "truth in the inward parts" (v. 6). Hereditary depravity advocates would have sin in his "inward parts" or counting against him at his birth.

There is nothing in the context of Psalms 51:5 which would cause one to understand it to teach that one inherits sin. Thus, both the verse and its context speak against how it is popularly used and sometimes translated by those who teach that a person is born with sin on their soul.

Contradiction or Harmony?
How will Psalm 51:5 best conform to the clear teaching of the Bible in other places? This is a material question whenever one is trying to understand the teaching of a given text. If one were to take the verse to say that one is born with sin on his soul it would contradict the following verses:



  • The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousnessof the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him. (Ezek. 18:20)

But Jesus said, Suffer little children, and forbid them not, to come unto me: for of such is the kingdom of heaven. (Matt. 19:14, my emph, sw)

On the other hand, if we understand Psalms 51:5 to teach that one is born innocent, in spite of the events surrounding their birth, it harmonizes with the above verses.

Conclusion
Most English-speaking brethren are aware of the weaknesses of various translations in their native tongue and have learned to deal with them. Likewise, we can deal with such problems in other languages. (In Lithuania, where Russian is understood, we use the Russian Synodal Version to show the proper rendering of Psalms 51:5.) Let us be aware of the dangers of possible errors in translations and be zealous to give proper explanation of God's word.


http://www.watchmanmag.com/0406/040604.htm
 
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holyrokker

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Psalm 58:3 "Even from birth the wicked go astray;
from the womb they are wayward and speak lies."

OK - how is this a case in favor if "original sin"?

First - It isn't talking about "universal" sin. The context of the psalm is contrasting the "wicked" against the "righteous". In keeping with that context, if we interpret this verse that the wicked are born that way, then we'd be forced to conclude that the righteous are born righteous.
Second - Do the wicked speak from thei birth as this verse says? Obviously the language of this psalm is not to be taken literally, nor is it a doctrinal statement concerning the state of all mankind at birth.
 
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Svt4Him

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Iollain said:
Even a new born baby who died after one breath needed Jesus to take the curse from Adam away. That was the plan since before the world was.

That Psalms verse may be talking about the foreknowledge of God?

Did they? Sin is transgression of the law, so what sin does a baby need forgiveness from one breath after birth? And when Jesus said to let the children come to Him, for theirs was the kingdom of heaven, was He lying?
 
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holyrokker

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Iollain said:
That Psalms verse may be talking about the foreknowledge of God?

Do you really think so? How could you come to such a conclusion? There's nothing in the entire psalm that would indicate that.
 
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svt4 him, you have some very good knowlege, and support for your view, and i see you have a hang up or two, perhaps. The opening statement you say sex between two is ok, are you referring to any two? and what type of sex is that?_____________your support for not sinning and not born in sin, is well documented thanks for all the verses.
 
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Iollain

Jer 18:2-6
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Svt4Him said:
Did they? Sin is transgression of the law, so what sin does a baby need forgiveness from one breath after birth? And when Jesus said to let the children come to Him, for theirs was the kingdom of heaven, was He lying?


Yes i think so, the Law never saved anyone and before the Law of Moses came, all were under sin still (fall of Adam), your either under sin (the fall of Adam, from dust we came to dust we will go - death) or under curse of the Law, the Law added transgressions. The Law is good but the Law cannot save. Jesus was the only one perfect under the Law. All the human race was under the fall and death wether they sinned or not.

A baby who dies at birth did not sin in that particular way, but was still under the fall and death from Adam, they needed a Saviour. Everyone either looked forward to the cross, or back to the cross for Salvation.

So a baby would be under death from the fall of Adam, without the Cross.
 
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