I think I'm taking the whole of the bible into consideration, I don't think those who ignore Romans 6:23 are taking the whole of the bible into consideration. Everyone picks and chooses which scriptures are literal and which are not. Would you say Romans 6:23 is literal? If not, why not? Would you say Revelation 14:11 is literal? If so why? How about Revelation 14:10? Is that verse literal too? Can God's wrath be poured into a cup?
How about John 3:16? Literal or no?
How about we keep this in relation to the current topic, and particular posts, shall we?
First of all, Romans 6:23 comes at the end of a passage which speaks about our freedom from sin, so every related Scripture which composes that thought must be taken into account.
Furthermore, Paul states that the wages of sin is death. In Genesis 2:16-17, God tells Adam not to eat the fruit of the tree of Knowledge of Good and Evil. Specifically, He states "on that day, you will surely die." Now, neither Adam nor Eve actually died the day they ate it, did they? Well, not physically- They died spiritually, and this is the death which is spoken of in Romans 6.
That death did not mean non-existence. It meant our complete and utter separation from the source of life- God Himself. Look at the before and after picture: Prior to sin, man walked with the Creator in the Garden. They talked, probably laughed, and enjoyed one another's company. Post-fall? No talking with the Lord face to face; no walking with Him, etc. His presence was still there, as is evidenced in Genesis 4, yet the relationship was not.
In short, the relationship that God had with Adam and Eve was severed. Through the death of Christ, we are brought back into relationship with Him once more. This very concept in spoken of in Romans 5. Now that we are in Christ, though, are we sinless? No! We still fall to temptation, and not one Christian on the face of this earth can claim otherwise.
How then are we not dying, as is spoken of in Genesis and Romans? Because we are free of the CURSE of sin- Which is death. Ironically, the curse of the Law? Also death, because the law kept would prevent people from sin. When the Law was broken, it meant there was sin, and thus- Death. The curse of the Law was a physical death and the curse of sin was a spiritual death.
However...
Revelation 20 and 21 both speak of the unbelievers, those who are not found in the Book of Life, are cast into the lake of fire- The same fate as Satan, as the Beast, as the False Prophet. This is termed "the second death." It is not referred to as oblivion, destruction, non-existence, etc. It means the same as it did in Romans, and the same as it did in Genesis, only this time, it's eternal.
My earlier point is that many Christians would like to take a single verse and have it stand apart, on its own, with no further input or context from the rest of Scripture. Those who call for the execution of Atheists and Homosexuals are notorious for this. This thread appears to do the same. I didn't know how to describe my meaning with a single word, thanks to a solid week of insomnia, and ended up misusing "literal." This was my mistake, and for that, I apologize.