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Was Jesus Dissing His Mother When He Called Her ‘Woman?’

Michie

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Neither term, ‘man’ or ‘woman,’ had negative overtones when used as a form of direct address in the New Testament.

At the wedding at Cana, Jesus turned to Mary and said, "Woman, how does your concern affect me? My hour has not yet come.”

Sounds disrespectful, doesn't it? Or at least you could take it that way.

But Jesus wasn't being disrespectful at all. Here's the story...



Pronoun Trouble​

First, the translation "How does your concern affect me?” (John 2:4 in the NAB:RE) is not a literal rendering of what Jesus says in Greek.

Word-for-word, what he says is, “What to me and to you?"

Continued below.
 

Chrystal-J

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And a great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Revelation 12:1
I always thought it was a reference to this upcoming scripture. ^
 
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RileyG

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And a great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Revelation 12:1
I always thought it was a reference to this upcoming scripture. ^
Also Genesis 3:15

I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel
 
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FaithT

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Neither term, ‘man’ or ‘woman,’ had negative overtones when used as a form of direct address in the New Testament.

At the wedding at Cana, Jesus turned to Mary and said, "Woman, how does your concern affect me? My hour has not yet come.”

Sounds disrespectful, doesn't it? Or at least you could take it that way.

But Jesus wasn't being disrespectful at all. Here's the story...



Pronoun Trouble​

First, the translation "How does your concern affect me?” (John 2:4 in the NAB:RE) is not a literal rendering of what Jesus says in Greek.

Word-for-word, what he says is, “What to me and to you?"

Continued below.
I was thinking that it sounded disrespectful too.
 
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Chrystal-J

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Also Genesis 3:15

I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel
Good point. And Revelation 12:17
 
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RileyG

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Bob Crowley

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The trouble with justifying the Greek term is that Christ was most likely speaking Aramaic.

How would Christ have addressed Mary in that language?

One commentator had this to say about the word in Aramaic.

In the Aramaic, Jesus is not calling his mother in a harsh tone saying: “Woman.” He uses the word ‘anath. In that culture, by calling His mother ‘anath in Aramaic He was really showing a sign of respect. There is a case built that Joseph was at least twice Mary’s age when they married and that he would have most likely died at this point but not before Mary had other children and would thus no longer be a virgin. In a sense, Jesus was doing her honor by calling her an ‘anath as this would be declaring that she was a single mother, by the death of her husband, who raised her children under the hardship of widowhood. We really have no English word for ‘anath in this context, nor is there a Greek word for ‘anath. It is a term of endearment which could have many translations. I have heard successful men and women speak with pride for their mothers when they say: “My mother was a single mother and raised me.” I think the NIV, which did a little paraphrasing, expressed it best – “Dear woman.” But that doesn’t fit that well, nor would words like mother, momma, or mom. We can only say that it is a tender, respectful response.
 
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