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Was Jesus Dissing His Mother When He Called Her ‘Woman?’

Michie

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Neither term, ‘man’ or ‘woman,’ had negative overtones when used as a form of direct address in the New Testament.

At the wedding at Cana, Jesus turned to Mary and said, "Woman, how does your concern affect me? My hour has not yet come.”

Sounds disrespectful, doesn't it? Or at least you could take it that way.

But Jesus wasn't being disrespectful at all. Here's the story...



Pronoun Trouble​

First, the translation "How does your concern affect me?” (John 2:4 in the NAB:RE) is not a literal rendering of what Jesus says in Greek.

Word-for-word, what he says is, “What to me and to you?"

Continued below.
 

Chrystal-J

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And a great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Revelation 12:1
I always thought it was a reference to this upcoming scripture. ^
 
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RileyG

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And a great sign appeared in heaven: a woman clothed with the sun, with the moon under her feet, and on her head a crown of twelve stars. Revelation 12:1
I always thought it was a reference to this upcoming scripture. ^
Also Genesis 3:15

I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel
 
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FaithT

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I was thinking that it sounded disrespectful too.
 
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Chrystal-J

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Also Genesis 3:15

I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel
Good point. And Revelation 12:17
 
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RileyG

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Bob Crowley

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The trouble with justifying the Greek term is that Christ was most likely speaking Aramaic.

How would Christ have addressed Mary in that language?

One commentator had this to say about the word in Aramaic.

 
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