ArnautDaniel
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Well, let's suppose that the word "beget" does just provide some sort of name, label, or shorthand for the concept "Jesus is preeminent, and His life and teachings tell us what God is like." What's the problem? We have a concept, which, by the way, is intelligible to us; the biblical author John has given us the term "beget" to express that concept. True, he could've used another term to express the concept in question, but he didn't. But whether or not he could've done so is irrelevant, because we can still find ways to express the concept. Showing that John "commandeered" a term which meant something else in another context in order to express, in quick fashion (and yes, I'll add, with a hint of the poetic), the concept he was seeking to express, by no means undermines the concept itself.
Well, as I'm sure you guessed, as I was only using "beget" as a convenient example, I would now bring the same sort of argument against these other terms.
It still hasn't been established that any clear meaing can be ascertained.
Going back to one of the examples I used earlier: "Capital" is used in economics to refer to, in short, a business's resources. Let us, for the sake of argument, assume that prior to its being used in that sense it was used only to express the highest or most prominent form of something (capital punishment, capital city, etc.). For an economic theorist to come along and decide, "I think the best short-hand for the concept I'm trying to express is 'capital'" is perfectly legitimate. He could've chosen another term, too, but he didn't, so the best thing to do is to stick to using his chosen terminology, and when we come across the word "capital" in his economic writings, interpret it the way he wants it interpreted, regardless of what it might mean elsewhere. Now, one could criticize his chosen term, but that doesn't do anything to undermine the concept he's trying to express.
Yes, but in this case the person can ultimately point to material assets or contracts. I can be given an example of capital. I can also be presented with a new person and determine whether they have "capital" and how much.
In short there is a rule I can apply to new situations and see if there is "capital".
There is no such rule or ability to check alternative things in the theological/metaphysical case.
To return to "begotten", how could I determine if say my dog and my cat enjoyed a relationship of "begetting"?
To be a useful term, you would have to define "begetting" independently of reference to persons of the trinity, and then show that in fact when applied to persons of the trinity it appears to be true.
But you have yet to define "beget" without any reference to Jesus or the Father so that it could conceivably be applied elsehwere.
Tell me why it's legitimate to do that in, say, the economic context, but not in a theological context. To me, your distinction is arbitrary, and stems from some sort of prior belief to the effect that there aren't any theological concepts at all. (Now, I'm guessing that last is what you believe, based on some of the stuff you've written already. If I'm wrong, please let me know what your actual theological views are.)
Just tell me what the rule/definition is, and we can apply it in a whole variety of situations and see whether it is true or false.
If it happens to apply in only one case that is fine. But if it is defined so as to apply in only one case...well that makes it nothing more than a name with no other meaning.
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