Last attempt to simplify this and show you why I think your missing the big picture here.
We agreed on the following:
nothing is the absence of everything
nonexistence is the absence of existence
now lets add:
irrationality is the absence of rationality
I agreed that the concept of irrationality is rational. In addition, the concepts of nothing and nonexistence as I've lined out above are also rational.
Hm... I think we might have to go back a step in order to sort this mess. I apologize: some of this confusion is very likely to have come from my imprecise usage of terms.
Here's is the difference I see:
The concepts of nothing, nonexistence and irrationality can all exist in a finite mind. But here is the difference, only irrationality itself(not the concept of it) can exist in a finite mind. IOW, an irrational finite mind can exist.
The problem I see here is our usage of the terms "rational" and "irrational". Based on our previous conversations, I assumed that you use them interchangable with "reasonable"... and I use that in about the same meaning as "logical" or "following logic".
Now "rational / irrational" can (and formally does) also mean "(not) understandable by our reason". That usually implies "following the rules of logic", but is a little different.
So here now you are starting to talk about "minds" and something that "exists in minds". I'm quite certain that this is not something that I ever mentioned, so it must be a connection that
you make with "(ir)rational".
And there's the problem: I am not talking about something that exists in "minds"... finite or infinite. As the idea of "nothing", which I started off from, definitly excludes something as complex as "mind", it is not possible to include in this model.
This means "nothing" and "nonexistence" themselves cannot exist in a finite mind, this is why it's impossible to have knowledge of them. You can have knowledge of the concepts of them.
IOW, a nothing finite mind or a nonexistent finite mind cannot exist. An irrational finite mind can exist. Do you understand this so far?
Now lets assume an eternal and infinite mind does exist. Lets assume this eternal and infinite mind created us and our universe. If this eternal and infinite mind were irrational, then we would not experience any order in our universe at all. In fact we would probably not even exist because the laws of nature would be in a state of chaos.
Sorry, I fear all that is based on your own worldview again, and isn't compatible with my worldview at all. "Minds" that "create" us... that is theistic stuff. I am not invoking any minds, rational or irrational, nor any kind of creation.
Though I have to state that I disagree with your conclusion: Even an irrational mind could create "order"... order is just a subset of chaos.
And that is just what is the case here, as describe by my worldview. The "universe" (by which I mean the rational / logical / ordered part, discovered or not) is not created. It is just the / an ordered subset of the greater irrational set that I call "Primal Chaos".
Lets assume this eternal and infinite mind is rational and it created us and our universe in a rational way. We would exist and we would be able to understand the difference between a finite rational mind and a finite irrational mind because a finite irrational mind can only exist because an eternal and infinite rational mind existed first. The finite irrational mind exists because of the absence of understanding that an eternal and infinite rational mind exists. This can explain why there is irrational evil in the world.
Just drop the minds. We are not talking about minds. Nor about evil.
"This statement is false". Ever heard that? It is called a "paradoxon". It is not rational. But here it is. Not evil. And made by perfectly rational minds.
In short:
If an eternal and infinite irrationality mind exists, then there can't be any order to our universe. The laws of nature would be complete chaos. Yet we clearly observe order.
False. Even withot the irrelevant "mind". Irrationality is an extention of rationality. It is not an exclusion of rationality. Order can be observed in even complete randomness.
If we assume that it is exactly our existence within this order-in-the-chaos that
enables us to observe this order, it should be no surprise what we "clearly observe".
We are within the closed box the keeps us from drowning in the ocean. Of course we observe the box, and not the ocean.
If an eternal and infinite rational mind exists, then there can be order to our universe because it was created by this mind. A finite irrational mind can also exist because of the absence of understanding that an eternal and infinite rational mind exists.
If an eternal and infinite rational mind exists... why would there be an absence of understanding that an eternal and infinite mind exists?
This can explain why we observe order in our universe, but we also observe disorder. Intentional order came before disorder.
As I have explained above, your assertion that order cannot come from disorder is false. So your argumentation fails here already.
But is your assertion that order produces order better? I say no.
If an eternal and infinite "order" were to "create" a different order, this would be a disruption of the original order. It would be disorder. Disorder would not be the result of "the absence of understanding"... after all, it would be possible and rational to create an "order" without any "minds" or "understanding" at all! Disorder would be the inevitable result of the act of creation.
This can explain everything and can't be proven wrong, which is only one of many reasons I believe in a rational God.
I fear I have just proven you wrong. Sorry for that.
