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The Denial of the Human Person of Christ - the Man Christ Jesus

Macarius

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Mac

I appreciate your well intentioned efforts - HOWEVER YOU HAVE COMPLETELY MISSED MY POINT!! I did not address your points because they were completely irrelevant to mine.

I have NO PROBLEM with one thing taking on a second nature - BUT that is NOT the issue. The point is you don't have a genuine man in your Christology - but Jesus, John the B, John the Ap, Paul, Peter and the entire apostolic church - DID have a human PERSON/consciousness/I as their savior (thank God!!!!!!

Aner

Your statement "I have no problem with one thing taking on a second nature" and "The point is you don't have a genuine man in your Christology" are a contradiction. In the former, you admit that a being (a person) can take on two natures. In the latter, you say we can't have a human Jesus because we have a divine Jesus. That's an issue of whether or not one being (Jesus) can have two full natures. You are, in essence, saying "A being can have two natures but Jesus can't have two natures." That's absolute nonsense.

Currently, your operating definition of nature seems closer to the Greek word "ousia" or "substance" - rather than "genus" or "category" (physis, which is the word translated as "nature" for these Christological discussions).

If you REDUCE Christ's humanity (in our model) to a MERE substance of humanity (i.e. a human body) then you are absolutely right - we would have reduced Christ's humanity beyond real recognition.

However, remember in my longer two posts I specifically said that to avoid contradiction we have to press the ontological / hypostatic reality of Christ's Incarnation to the FULLEST EXTENT. And human nature (that is, the genus of humanity) goes WAY beyond the ousia of a human body. You yourself harp on this point over and over again - that Christ needs a human will, and a human rational soul, etc etc. The problem is, we AGREE WITH YOU on that. What you keep missing is that we TEACH THAT CHRIST HAD THESE THINGS.

However, my long post pointed out that there is NO (zero, not a bit of) contradiction between Christ having this FULL humanity (human soul, human will, human body, etc) while having pre-existed as Divine, and while retaining His full divinity.

The Son may have started as a Divine person, and is still a Divine person. But after the Incarnation He is ALSO (FULLY AND COMPLETELY) a HUMAN person. So there is a FULL HUMAN PERSON in our Christology. Through the ontological hypostatic union this FULL human person is ALSO (while being one) the FULL Divine person.

So my post, which demonstrated that this was logically possible and therefore possible for God to accomplish (given God's omnipotence), was DIRECTLY responsive to your points.

To put it back in philosophical terms, you are using two fallacies (at this point) to maintain your basic point against my still-successful rebuttal:

1) Straw man: you continuously misrepresent our perspective despite repeated attempts by us to explain it. The only explanation must be that you think some premise of our position leads to the conclusion you are drawing, but my posts have demonstrated that this isn't the case.

2) Changing Definition: I've defined the four main terms from our perspective (physis, hypostasis, prosopon, ousia). Your point works if you continue to willfully use a definition of nature that shifts back and forth between physis (nature / genus / category) and ousia (substance), but ignores hypostasis (ontology).

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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Macarius

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Mormons believe in the divinity of Christ.

Aner is, in terms of well known heresies, an ebionite - someone who only professes the humanity of Christ and denies His divinity. Its the opposite of docetism (which denies the humanity, and says that Christ is only a spirit w/ an illusionary humanity).

The most common form of ebionism was adoptionism - the idea that Christ's "sonship" was as an adopted son of God. Aner hasn't expressed this view, but has used something close to it when interpreting the title 'son of God' for Christ.
 
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Aner

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Gentlemen

I will keep it short here while I work. Bull thanks for joining and providing your specific responses.

Frankly, I am looking forward to some intelligent discussion inc. clarification of terms, etc. I appreciate your patience and will adjust my terms accordingly as you make them clear.

My main point will ultimately be that Jesus is missing something fundamental - that the 2nd person did not take on a functional human being but an non-functional human nature. If I am incorrect, I would love to be corrected and move towards clarification.

More than anything, I would like to get to an honest agreement as to the nature of your Christological model - without word games (he is only a divine person but he is really a genuine man is a word game). Regardless of anything else, we should be able to come to agreement of the specifics of your christological model. I do want to accurately represent you.

Bull - I am NOT a mormon - I hate the Mormon church - it is of Satan.

Mac is generally right re: the Christological antecendent - although there were others besides Ebionism - see Theodotius and others in the 2nd C.

Best,
Aner
 
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Macarius

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Gentlemen

I will keep it short here while I work. Bull thanks for joining and providing your specific responses.

Frankly, I am looking forward to some intelligent discussion inc. clarification of terms, etc. I appreciate your patience and will adjust my terms accordingly as you make them clear.

My main point will ultimately be that Jesus is missing something fundamental - that the 2nd person did not take on a functional human being but an non-functional human nature. If I am incorrect, I would love to be corrected and move towards clarification.

More than anything, I would like to get to an honest agreement as to the nature of your Christological model - without word games (he is only a divine person but he is really a genuine man is a word game). Regardless of anything else, we should be able to come to agreement of the specifics of your christological model. I do want to accurately represent you.

Bull - I am NOT a mormon - I hate the Mormon church - it is of Satan.

Mac is generally right re: the Christological antecendent - although there were others besides Ebionism - see Theodotius and others in the 2nd C.

Best,
Aner

I can clarify my general terminology in a way that is (to me) pretty straightforward. I'm glad we've realized that this is necessary, as it gives me hope for progress within the discussion.

The Christological debates of the 5th c. inherited a mess of terminology, and did not (by and large) resolve it. Some of the terms are used interchangeably within the primary sources, and it is important to look at the context to see how (within a given statement) the writer intends for the word to be used. For example, Nestorius speaks of two "prosopon" (effected centers that recieve action / are acted upon / have distinct names) and one "prosopon" (one individual whom we witness in the Gospels). He means the terms in different ways at different times, and that causes confusion. St. Cyril isn't much better in terms of clarity, but is remarkably consistent in his insistence that there be an ontological unity without the diminishment of either the divinity or humanity in any way. Broadly speaking, he expresses that idea with the following definitions for the four critical Christological (and Trinitarian, for that matter) terms:

1) Physis (generally translated nature, sometimes essence). In some cases, this refers to the substantiated ontological expression of a genus (St. Cyril often means it this way; hence his insistence on "one nature" of Christ early in his writings), but within the Chalcedonian Churches this term has come to be used exclusively as "genus." That is, it is the name for a category of things that all share common characteristics, and when referred to as a "physis" it evokes each and every one of those characteristics. So, for example, if I say "human nature" I imply EVERYTHING on the list of "what it means to be human." If I say "rock nature" I imply everything it means to be a rock.

2) Hypostasis (generally translated as essence, sometimes nature). Similarly to physis, this term could be used to denote a genus, but more commonly denotes the ontological reality of a being possessing a nature. It isn't itself the substance of that nature, but rather expresses the ontology in an abstract way. The easiest analogy is to think of a fictional human being in a story; within that world, they are ontologically human, even though they don't have any substance. However, most things that are hypostatically something will be that thing in substance as well. The Greeks just had a different term for that. The hypostasis is the essence of a being - it is the name for what a specific being is (whereas physis is more conceptual and describes a group the being belongs to).

3) Prosopon (person, or entity, or being). This term, today, connotes a center of action or activity but did not imply that in the 5th c. The idea of each person as a unique center of being in part developed because of these debates. More specifically, it denotes an "individual." What happens to one person doesn't happen to another. If you hit me, you haven't hit "human nature" - you've hit Macarius, a prosopon (a single hypostatic ontological instance of the physis "human").

4) Ousia (substance, sometimes essence). This term denotes the physical substance of a nature. Actually, the word 'physical' is misleading because this term is also used for God's "substance." Whatever a hypostatic reality is made from is its "ousia."

So, in general, a single prosopon is made of a single ousia that corresponds to that prosopon's hypostasis, which is itself the prosopon's ontological membership in the category of its physis.

In descending order from most conceptual to most literal / real, you'd go from physis (most conceptual) to hypostasis (semi-conceptual, but rooted in ontological reality), to prosopon (still semi-conceptual, but referring to an individual), to ousia (not at all conceptual).

So, let's use the terms. We teach that God is ONE ousia (substantially one), and of ONE physis (which includes omnipotence, omniscience, omnipresence, eternal existence and preexistence, perfect love, etc). However, there are three hypostasis in the Trinity, expressed as three prosopon: Father, Son, Holy Spirit. Because they are ONE ousia, they can be called one God. Furthermore, because of their common nature, they are each in all the same places (everywhere), at all the same times (preexisting / uncreated), doing the same stuff (being all powerful), with the same motive (love). In every way we typically differentiate people, they are one. As such, we teach one God (one physis, one ousia) in three Persons (three hypostasis / prosopon).

We arrive at this (rather contrived) way of describing God not because we comprehend Him. I have no clue whatsoever how Three Persons have one ousia. That's a mystery way beyond my finitude. However, we observe, quite strongly, that Scripture calls Christ the "only begotten" of the Father. Now, there is a difference between that and what we are (God's handiwork).

Let me explain. A carpenter makes things with wood. The table he makes, that is his handiwork (much like creation is God's). The table doesn't share a nature with the carpenter. But the carpenter's son? The carpenter's SON isn't going to be a table, or a rock, or an elephant. The carpenter's son is going to be a carpenter.

So God's "only begotten" MUST have the Divine physis. Physis begets physis. Things from one genus, if able to reproduce, produce things of a like physis (though a distinct hypostasis and a new prosopon). Obviously, I've no clue how God begets within the Trinity - again, that's beyond me. I'm only going off of what God has REVEALED: that Christ is His only begotten. Physis begets physis, therefore Christ is God. God is one, and says quite plainly that He and the Father are one, so we know they share one ousia. The Holy Spirit's procession from the Father likewise indicates His divinity alongside the Father and Son. And from this we now have the paradox (though not a contradiction) of Three Prosopon of one physis and one ousia. Three in One.

Yet this means that Christ, the human, is GOD. How? The Son (so named because of the revelation of God through Christ), we know Him to be fully human. You yourself point out the clear indications of that in Scripture. Let alone the fact that HE DIES. That's a pretty human thing to do. So here we have one person (we don't experience "two people" in Christ - there is only one Jesus) who we know to be Divine AND human.

To try and express THAT mystery (and it is a mystery), we focus on the unity of Christ on the hypostasis / prosopon level. Christ is two ousia (He is substantially human and substantially divine), from two physis (He has EVERYTHING it means to be human and EVERYTHING it means to be divine). But He unites these two physis into a single hypostasis (He has ONLY one ontology - He is ontologically a single being, a single prosopon). This incredible mystery is only possible because of the voluntary self-emptying of God. God is not diminished by the hypostatic union because He voluntarily accepts all the limitations of His new humanity (which means He can still voluntarily throw off those limitations).

Because Christ has a FULL human ousia, expressing a FULL human physis, and because this is ONTOLOGICALLY (hypostatically) united to His pre-existing Divine physis / ousia, we can say there is ONE prosopon that has EVERYTHING it means to be human - He IS human. Ontologically. After the Incarnation, we don't have divinity with humanity wrapped around it. We have a God that literally BECAME HUMAN. That's the miracle.

And that's the whole point of all this complexity. People get away from it, but it is really quite simple. We say that God became human. EVERYTHING that is human (all the stuff you're worried that we leave out of Christ's humanity) we teach that He has, that He IS - and not merely like putting on a new piece of clothing. He has adopted this ONTOLOGICALLY into His own condition of being. He has BECOME these things. That's the part I think you're missing. His humanity is a sheath he throws off - its a permanent reality (which He voluntarily and impassibly accepts by His omnipotence), a "hypostatic union."

Hope that helps.

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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Aner

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Mac

This is pretty complex for a simple sinner like me. I am willing to work through it - and I certainly appreciate your effort in doing so. But I wonder if there is some way to simplify to get to the heart of the issue I am addressing. I am also wondering whether there is any way to simply use scriptural texts - since none of this high flutin' term are found in scripture in specific or even conceptual. Again, I am willing work through but would like to simplify if possible so that "the common man might hear us gladly".

I believe Bulldog mentioned that conciousness/ego/I is actually in the nature and not the person. Do you agree?

This would indicate that Jesus has a human consciousness/"I"/ego - that I can communicate with - and a divine consciousness/"I"/ego that I can communicate with. Is that right??

I will try to work through your effort above - but you input on this issue would help clarify my understanding.

Best,
Aner
 
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ArmyMatt

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My main point will ultimately be that Jesus is missing something fundamental - that the 2nd person did not take on a functional human being but an non-functional human nature. If I am incorrect, I would love to be corrected and move towards clarification.

but He isn't missing anything. it seems that you only want to believe that we think He does. He wept, hungered, thirsted, got tired, died, was born, grew up, was taught by Joseph, and lived in Palestine in the 1st century. He had a soul (Father into your hands I commend my spirit) and a human will that did not want to die (Father, if it were possible, take this cup from me, yet I want Your will not mine). all this makes it painfully clear that Christ was and is as human as anyone else. He is human.

however, He also was worshiped, forgave sins, read the hearts of others, and performed miracles without invoking God (like rebuking the waves). He called Himself "I Am," raised the dead, cast out demons, asked for the glory He had before the world was, and claimed total unity with the Father (I and the Father are one, I am in the Father and the Father is in Me, all things the Father has are Mine, etc). in addition the Gospel writers claim His Divinity all over the place. Emmanuel means "God with us." the opening prologue of St John claimed that the Son was never made, because everything created was created by Him. so He must also be uncreated.

to call God, who is unchanging, Father, that means He always has a Son. He did not become a Father because that means that at some point He became something that He is not, which makes no sense. also, to say that God is love and good means that there must always be a lover and a beloved, someone to do good to. so if Christ is not Divine, then who or what was God loving or being good to before anything was created? this is why begotten is in the present tense in Scripture, because it is an eternal reality when referring to Christ.

in the Book of Revelation, again the Lamb is worshiped, and the title Alpha and Omega is given to both God and the Lamb, among others that I cannot remember off the top of my noggin.

so all of this points to the fact that Jesus is both God and Man, 100% in each category, with no mixing or confusing of the Natures. this is what is professed in the Incarnation.
 
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Aner

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Then if Jesus is a genuine human soul with emotions and independently functional without the divine soul AND a genuine divine soul - will I be able to talk to both the person who wept and then be able to talk to the person who was worshipped?? And is the human Jesus sitting at the right hand of God - and the divine person included in the same throne as God??

Help me out... What is the difference between you and Nestorius?

Aner
 
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Aner

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Here is my point - just because God stuck his face into a mask - that does not make God a mask. AM however sounds like God stuck himself into an independently functioning human being... So I have the divine Jesus and the human Jesus.

Somewhere something is missing if I only have one and not two of something.....

I think you must get my point??? Or, how do I explain it so that it is clear such that we can at least come to agreement on the problem (regardless of the solution).

Aner
 
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ArmyMatt

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Then if Jesus is a genuine human soul with emotions and independently functional without the divine soul AND a genuine divine soul - will I be able to talk to both the person who wept and then be able to talk to the person who was worshipped?? And is the human Jesus sitting at the right hand of God - and the divine person included in the same throne as God??

Help me out... What is the difference between you and Nestorius?

okay, Jesus is one Person with two natures. He (meaning one) is both fully human and fully Divine (meaning two). therefore praying/talking/worshiping the human that cried in Gethsemane, and the Word that created all things is the same person. this is why the Scriptures say that Christ was worshiped. they bowed before Christ who is both man and God. don't divide Him like that.

what's the difference between us and Nestorius? well, my Church anathematized Nestorius for starters. two, Nestorius did not believe in One Person with Two Natures. again, One Person with Two Natures.
Here is my point - just because God stuck his face into a mask - that does not make God a mask. AM however sounds like God stuck himself into an independently functioning human being... So I have the divine Jesus and the human Jesus.

how many times do we have to go over this? Jesus is not some Divine Being Who stuck Himself inside of a human shell. that would not make Him 100% human which has been said over and over and over again. He is 100% human like you and me. He took on humanity and became human without ceasing to be God. I really don't know how much clearer I can make it. He is God and man at the same time. the Son of God became the Son of the Virgin.

if the Scriptures say that Christ took on flesh, then that means that His existence preceded His taking on flesh. which means He was something other than human before His birth in Bethlehem.

so we have one Person with two wills, two minds, two natures, with His humanity in complete and perfect obedience to His Divinity. He is God, and He is man. that is what we believe. so go with that or go away.
 
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Aner

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My problem is that you keep saying one thing - and then turning around and saying the opposite. You are comfortable with holding logical inconsistency in your mind - I won't and the scriptures don't.

If you are uncomfortable with the questions, that is fine. Let's agree here that you and I cease fellowship - I have no problem with that. From this point on I will neither address nor respond to you. You have my best in your life experience.

Sincerely,
Aner
 
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Aner

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Gentlemen

Here is a penetrating question based on AM's statement above that
His existence preceded His taking on flesh.

If that which that which existed before did not take on the human being that was conceived in Mary - would that human being conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit be able to independently function??

Thanks
Aner
 
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ArmyMatt

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My problem is that you keep saying one thing - and then turning around and saying the opposite. You are comfortable with holding logical inconsistency in your mind - I won't and the scriptures don't.

but that's the problem, the Scriptures profess both Christ's Divinity and His humanity. you are the one being inconsistent as Macarius pointed out. if you don't want to respond to this then you don't have to. but I have not once heard an answer for the Scriptures that profess that Christ is Divine. all you seem to say is that it doesn't make sense to you. it's a paradox and it has to be. you keep trying to fit God into a box that He won't fit into.

If you are uncomfortable with the questions, that is fine. Let's agree here that you and I cease fellowship - I have no problem with that. From this point on I will neither address nor respond to you. You have my best in your life experience.

no dude, I am not uncomfortable with your questions at all. they just don't make any sense and are weak. you ignore any posts that anyone else points out. I think I put forth as good an argument as I can explaining how we Orthodox see Christ, yet you refuse to deal with that. like I said, I will continue this (even if you don't), but if we are going to get anywhere you have to deal with how we see God. how the Church teaches us. then we will actually get somewhere.
 
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Aner

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First, there are no scriptures that teach the ontological deity of Jesus (only positional). I believe that sound exegesis - as taught by the Holy Spirit -for you have no need of a man to teach you but the Holy Spirit will lead and guide you into all truth (you rely on men - I rely on the Spirit -I may be in error at some points - but my heart and mind are open to the Spirit because Jesus taught me that was all I needed).

More important, until we can come to agreement on the issue I am identifying, it does not make sense to deal with the exegesis of the commonly used texts (which, btw, I am happy to do so one we at least come to agreement).

So let me ask the question again - give me the specific difference between Nestorious' Christology and your Christology. Telling me that your church condemned Nestorious is meaningless UNLESS you can give me the very specific difference as to WHY - in detailed reference to Nestorious's christology vs. yours.

Thanks,
Aner
 
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ArmyMatt

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So let me ask the question again - give me the specific difference between Nestorious' Christology and your Christology. Telling me that your church condemned Nestorious is meaningless UNLESS you can give me the very specific difference as to WHY - in detailed reference to Nestorious's christology vs. yours.

Nestorius: Mary gave birth to the Christ, the man, but not God. Mary can and should be called Christotokos (Christ bearer), but not Theotokos (God bearer). sounds actually more like your position.

Me: Mary gave birth to God. Mary can and should be called Theotokos because she gave birth to God.
First, there are no scriptures that teach the ontological deity of Jesus (only positional). I believe that sound exegesis - as taught by the Holy Spirit -for you have no need of a man to teach you but the Holy Spirit will lead and guide you into all truth (you rely on men - I rely on the Spirit -I may be in error at some points - but my heart and mind are open to the Spirit because Jesus taught me that was all I needed).

first, yes they do. Jesus called Himself I Am, which is the Divine Name that only God has (ie the God that called Moses from the burning bush, Jesus said that He is that God). you cannot be positionally God and not be God. God is God.

no, I don't rely on men the way that you imply. I rely on 2000 years of consistent teaching, whereas you rely on yourself. and Jesus did not teach that the Spirit is all you needed, if He did the Bible would be a very short book. Christ actually established a Church. the New Testament was not written until a generation after the Resurrection, and not codified for nearly 400 years at two councils. read the Book of Acts, everyone who becomes a Christian is received into the already established Body. none of them just believed and went off and did their own thing.
 
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Macarius

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Then if Jesus is a genuine human soul with emotions and independently functional without the divine soul AND a genuine divine soul - will I be able to talk to both the person who wept and then be able to talk to the person who was worshipped??

No, because Jesus is hypostatically one. The same prosopon, the same ontological reality, shows forth both of these simultaneously. We do not teach that Jesus's humanity could function without the Son because that would be equivalent (once you accept the hypostatic union) of saying I could function without myself.

The humanity is not OTHER than the Christ - the Son becomes ontologically human. So there is one person, one ontology, that is simultaneously showing forth all the attributes of human and divine nature. The human nature includes the rational soul, emotions, ability to die, etc. The divine nature includes the impassibility, eternity, power, and glory, omnipotence, etc. There is no contradiction because it is a voluntary self-emptying on the part of the divinity. This is not inconsistent with God, but is rather the completion / fulfillment of God's essential identity as Love and as Creator - as through the Incarnation He expresses the fullest extent of His Love and completes His creative act.

And is the human Jesus sitting at the right hand of God - and the divine person included in the same throne as God??

Right hand is not to be understood as a literal direction - that would be absurd. The right hand is the place of highest honor in the Biblical cultures (i.e. Jewish / Greek). Saying Christ ascended into heaven and sat at God's right hand is to say that Christ ascended into heaven and co-ruled the universe with God. Only God would be able to do that. Yet the miracle is that through the Incarnation's hypostatic union the same being - the same ontological identity - is also human. So yes, there is a human person co-ruling the universe with God the Father.

Help me out... What is the difference between you and Nestorius?

Nestorius followed the same logic you are following, but denied the hypostatic union and, as such, was left with two ontological identities and a non-Incarnate God. We teach the hypostatic union precisely to deny Nestorianism. We also teach it to avoid Nestorius's opposite (Apollinarius).

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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Macarius

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I would like to work with the other gentlemen on the board to see if we can clear up the logical inconsistency that I have identified to at least clearly agree on its contours.

Aner

Please refer back to the two long posts I made that completely broke down the supposed inconsistency you are seeing and demonstrated that the law of noncontradiction is NOT broken by what we teach.

This is exactly where I wanted the debate to go - now you see that your point rests completely on a percieved logical contradiction. My two posts are still highly relevant as they address this exact underlying assumption.

Once we settle that there is no contradiction, and that (therefore) God could accomplish what we teach He accomplished, then it makes total sense to go to the Scriptures and demonstrate that He did, in fact, do what we say He did (unite as a single prosopon and a single hypostatic reality the two ousia / physis of humanity and Divinity).

Hope that helps.

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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Macarius

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Gentlemen

Here is a penetrating question based on AM's statement above that

If that which that which existed before did not take on the human being that was conceived in Mary - would that human being conceived in Mary by the Holy Spirit be able to independently function??

Thanks
Aner

That's like asking "have you stopped beating your wife yet?" When you phrase a closed yes / no question like that you force the answerer to share an assumption with you. That assumption (as in the case of "have you stopped beating your wife yet?") may or may not be true.

The assumption you make in this case is that there are TWO hypostatic realities (two ontologies) in Christ, and you make this assumption based on the fact that one hypostasis / prosopon had pre-existence. That mere fact does not mean that there cannot be a hypostatic unity in the Incarnate Christ. Again, refer to my two longer posts for a logical demonstration of this.

So the question you are asking is an invalid question, as either answering yes or no forces acceptance of an assumption that we do not accept.

In Christ,
Macarius
 
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Aner

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first, yes they do. Jesus called Himself I Am, which is the Divine Name that only God has (ie the God that called Moses from the burning bush, Jesus said that He is that God).

AM

With all due respect this is blatantly false.

Please read Jn9:9 where the blind man also called himself "I AM"... You might try ICor15:10 where Paul calls himself "I am that I am".

Your reference to Jn is is to an unstated predicated nominative that is however clear in the context. I will let you figure it out...

OK - the cat is out of the bag - first exegetical knock-down. I am trying to avoid this because most of these are so simply as long as you reject the human tradition that you have been taught and reason together with the Lord.

BTW - Jesus specifically that we have no need of a man to teach us - are you calling Jesus a LIAR???????

Best,
Aner
 
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