You all take communion, right?
Do you view it as symbolic, like the Protestant Christians?
Do you view it as symbolic, like the Protestant Christians?
Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.
Yesterday at 05:47 AM Talmid HaYarok said this in Post #2 (http://www.christianforums.com/showthread.php?postid=652357#post652357)
Yes we do of course. When Yeshua started the "communion" it was part of the Passover Supper and is traditionally called the Seder.
Taking part in the Full Seder at Passover or partaking of communion is an act that reminds me of the Lord's full promise and fulfillment of it to the Jews. The angel of death first passed over the Israelites as detailed in the book of Exodus in Egypt over 3,000 years ago. Now we will once again be passed over from the second death because of the work completed in the Messiah.
On the Symbolic/literal thing I think varies a lot by congregations. However, I think the most common approach would be to neither treat it as purely symbolic nor treat it as literal in a physical sense. Rather it is a very spiritual and sacred act, where we are spiritually (if such dualism is allowed) partaking in the act. Hope that helps
I'm curious to see what the others have to say when they post again.
Peace.
14th February 2003 at 09:50 PM A_B_liever said this in Post #3
I have a humble question. Does messianic Judiasm have a deposit of sacred scripture concerning the actual teachings and actions of Jesus during his time on earth? Does messianic Judiasm accept (or use) the traditional Christian New Testament?
Well we have the same bible that all Christians use. I don't know of a group yet that uses the Apocrypha, but with all the wild and crazy differences among different groups I'd be surprised if nobody did.
13th February 2003 at 08:24 PM Chrisopher Paul said this in Post #1
You all take communion, right?
Do you view it as symbolic, like the Protestant Christians?
Today at 08:09 AM Talmid HaYarok said this in Post #5
Well we have the same bible that all Christians use. I don't know of a group yet that uses the Apocrypha, but with all the wild and crazy differences among different groups I'd be surprised if nobody did.
There is a translation of the Bible called the Complete Jewish Bible which usues traditional Jewish terms in place of the "Christianized" ones that were used out of replacement theology. For instance its uses the word "Hanukkah" instead of "Festival of Lights" in the NT because it is referring to that Jewish holiday. Unfortunately, I don't own a copy. I did use the copy of the Jewish New Testament that I found my Jewish grandmother had hidden away for the longest time. Eventually I returned it to my mother though.
Many congregations use what Jewish traditions they deem appropriate and relevant as Messianic believers. Some also have very old Messianic traditions that have been handed down or recovered from the ages.
Yesterday at 06:18 PM Noa said this in Post #4
I speak for myself, but I´m a bit cautious with the Greek translation. I accept the Aramese and Hebrew translation the most.
Today at 04:38 PM Chrisopher Paul said this in Post #10
Ok, so now that I have learned that you all take communion, I want to ask something else.
In the OT, the Jews had to actually eat the sacrificed lambs to make the atonement valid for each of them, correct? (I can provide Scripture if you want)
How does this come into play with Jesus saying that the bread was His actual flesh and that we had to eat it, else we don't have life in us?
Today at 12:20 PM MissytheButterfly said this in Post #11 (http://www.christianforums.com/showthread.php?postid=665145#post665145)
Chris, yeah I think I would like for you to provide the scripture, so I can comment further and see the exact context it's used in. Then I can comment further..
Chris' question:
In the OT, the Jews had to actually eat the sacrificed lambs to make the atonement valid for each of them, correct? (I can provide Scripture if you want)
How does this come into play with Jesus saying that the bread was His actual flesh and that we had to eat it, else we don't have life in us?
Second half of Chris' question"
How does this come into play with Jesus saying that the bread was His actual flesh and that we had to eat it, else we don't have life in us?
Pretty good.I looked it up in the bible.. the phrase "unblemished male" but it's not in the KJV, translational issue I suspect.. but since you are Catholic, I did look it up in your bible.. the NASB, if I am not mistaken and it is listed as such. In the Stone Edition Tanach it is "unblemished lamb, or kid, a male.."
It seems to be in your bible.. here it is: Exodus 12:5
5 'Your lamb shall be (2) an unblemished male a year old; you may take it from the sheep or from the goats. (NASB)
Anyway, let me attempt to answer your question.. if it's not good enough for you.. I'll try to elaborate when you find a scripture for what you are asking if I am not correct in about what your asking..
Missy's answer:
In Exodus 12 it is speaking about when Passover was instituted. The annual Feast of Passover commemorated the birth of Israel and her deliverance from Eygpt. It is also believed to point forward to the greater deliverance from the bondage of sin to be provided by the Messiah. In Passover, a lamb without blemish was selected and killed and the blood was placed on doorposts, and the lamb was roasted and eaten with unleavened bread and bitter herbs ( of course many Jews and Messianics, as well as some Christians still observe Passover with lamb, herbs, and unleavened bread).
This doesn't have relation to "atonement", that is a Yom Kippur thought which means "Atonement". Passover and Yom Kippur are 2 different feasts with different meanings.
For Orthodox or Traditional Jews the significance for Passover is:
1.) The Birth of Israel as a nation.
2.) Deliverance from bondage.
3.)Points to the deliverance from the bondage of sin by the Messiah, which of course they have not accepted is Yeshua of Nazareth.
Relation to the Messiah:
When John the Baptist introduced Yeshua (Jesus) to the nation, he recognized the Messiah as the fulfillment of the Passover lambs : "Behold the Lamb of God" (John 1:29, 36).
One who believes in Yeshua (Jesus) as Messiah not only recognizes the fullfilment of the Passover sacrifice but one's own responsibility to "keep the feast" by living a sincere and truthful life. (I Cor 5:6-8).
While some believe during Yeshua's last passover he refers to actually eating his flesh... for Messianics it has no application for that and never has. Passover is to remember these things for Messianics :
1.) The Birth of Israel
2.) Deliverance from bondage from Eygpt(Exodus)
3.) Redemption from sin provided by the Messiah (Yeshua).
When Yeshua said at his final Passover with the Apostles or the "Last Supper" as some refer to it, he said, "Take, eat; this is my body...Drink ye all of it; For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins."
This was not a literal saying to actually consume his flesh or to drink blood, at least for Messianics it isn't. For Messianics that observe the law eating flesh of a human wouldn't be considered kosher and certainly drinking blood is forbidden under the law in the Tanach (old testament). It would not even be considered as such for Messianics reguardless of whether they kept kosher regularly or not.
Yeshua's reference to eating his flesh and his blood is symbolic of him offering himself as the bread of heaven, this is not literal for the consumption of actual flesh and blood, nor does it mean or refer to Communion or any part of the Passover seder to turn into Yeshua's (Jesus') blood and literal flesh for Messianics. And furthermore would be almost unbelievable among Jews & Messianics alike that it could mean that Yeshua was actually telling one to consume flesh or blood since he was in fact a Jew by birth and of course as we know Yeshua was an observant Jew.
Reference to this
I presume you mean this:
John 6
53 So Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood, you have no life in yourselves. (NASB)
John 6
53 Then Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Except ye eat the flesh of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you. (KJV)
Yochanan 6
53 Therefore, Rebbe, Melech HaMoshiah said unto them, Omein, omein, I say to you, unless you eat the [Seudas Moshiach] basar of the Ben HaAdam and drink [the Kiddush Cup of the Brit Chadasha in] dahm, you do not have Chayyim (Life) in yourselves.(Orthodox Jewish Brit Chadasha)
The verses prior to this come into play because Yeshua is explaining that he is the bread which comes from heaven and if anyone partakes of "this bread" he shall live forever.
Now of course the Jews were confused and puzzled at Yeshua's saying since they are forbidden to drink blood (Lev 17:11) but here the Jews missed the point of what Yeshua was conveying. Yeshua brings and sustains spiritual life but the Jews assumed he was referring to the physical life this is why it is considered a "hard-saying" in v.60 which it is clear to Messianics that he is not speaking of the physical but the spiritual..hence the belief among Messianics that Yeshua does not refer to the consumption of literal flesh and blood.
Well I hope this answers your question Chris, I apologize for the length of it, but I wanted to be clear as possible so that you would be able to understand what Messianics believe and why. If you don't understand something or need clarification, just ask.. I am sure I or one of the other Messianics will be happy to help.
Shalom,
Missy