(translated by Google)
Good afternoon, brothers!
I will give a brief account of my situation, to facilitate the understanding of my questions.
I married shortly after conversion, to a woman I was dating, who claimed to be a Christian. After much turmoil in her marriage (including several beatings on her part and threats to call the police), she returned to her mother's house, filed for divorce, started dating months later (before the divorce decision), sent her me pictures with the guy and verbally humiliated me in a totally unnecessary way several times in this time.
Years later, she contacted me saying she missed me and wanted to date. After I asked her about the weather, she said she didn't regret anything, but wanted to date. In addition, he confirmed with other questions that he is not a true believer, as he has zero fear of God. How can I remarry with her if she is clearly not a true believer?
That said, I spent a lot of time studying divorce and remarriage. I will summarize what I saw and I await some contribution from the brothers, if possible. If you can answer me on just one of the points, I kindly ask you to be the first, if possible.
1) I have not found a text that says that a man abandoned (passive) by his wife commits adultery if he marries another woman;
2) if a woman who was abandoned, even for an unjust cause (Deut. 24), could marry again, except to priests (Lev. 21), after the coming of the Lord the abandoned woman could no longer marry? It's not my case, but it doesn't seem to make much sense. Was there more grace for the abandoned woman before? This leads me to suspicions regarding translations.
3) Why does the text about "divorce" (or put away) appear in Lucas in the middle of texts about money?
4) Why is it believed that the union of one flesh is something ontological, and there are several passages in which it demonstrates that this does not occur (Abraham and Hagar, marriage with foreigners, relationships between relatives, I Cor. 5, I Cor. 6, Deut. 24...)
5) The verbs allow and command are interchanged in Matthew 19 and Mark 10. Why do almost everyone who preaches Matthew 19 ignore this interchange in Mark 10?
6) Why do people ignore that the procedural issue of the divorce certificate has value? Think with me: what was the penalty for adultery? Stoning? Not always. If there were no witnesses and she was guilty, the penalty for the same offense would be different, according to Num. 5. Why is it not noticed that God made this point in Isaiah 50 by asking where the certificate of divorce would be?
7) Why is it difficult to see that there is no full similarity in the treatment between the sexes in the biblical text? Not in Deut. 24, nor in all the speeches of the Lord Jesus, nor in I Corinthians 7.
Thank you immensely for your attention. God bless you!