• Starting today August 7th, 2024, in order to post in the Married Couples, Courting Couples, or Singles forums, you will not be allowed to post if you have your Marital status designated as private. Announcements will be made in the respective forums as well but please note that if yours is currently listed as Private, you will need to submit a ticket in the Support Area to have yours changed.

  • Christian Forums is looking to bring on new moderators to the CF Staff Team! If you have been an active member of CF for at least three months with 200 posts during that time, you're eligible to apply! This is a great way to give back to CF and keep the forums running smoothly! If you're interested, you can submit your application here!

Kecharitomene

Status
Not open for further replies.

AMDG

Tenderized for Christ
May 24, 2004
25,362
1,286
75
Pacific Northwest, United States
✟54,522.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
From the specially conjugated word "charitoo"--showing the completeness and continuation of "grace". The Vulgate was "gratiae plena" or "full of grace". My Douay-Rheimes has that and even the footnotes of my KJV has "much GRACED". Well, if it is from "grace", why don't we have at least some notation of it. How did we simply get "highly favored" from the expression? (You are "highly favored" by your Baptism and reception of the Eucharist as I am, yet Our Lady was, is, and will be "full of grace" from God. And "favored" isn't even close to "graced".)
 

geocajun

Priest of the holy smackrament
Dec 25, 2002
25,483
1,689
✟35,477.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
full of grace = "plErEs charitos" in greek, not "kecharitomenE".
The greek kecharitomenE would more literally translate to "woman who is or has been graced"
Keep in mind that in English, grace can be interchanged with favor as well. Except I suppose when one wishes to discuss grace in terms of actual and habitual.
"Full of grace" is IMO only as defensible as "Highly favored" and clearly many exegetes (catholics included) prefer highly favored.
 
Upvote 0

AMDG

Tenderized for Christ
May 24, 2004
25,362
1,286
75
Pacific Northwest, United States
✟54,522.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
The greek kecharitomenE would more literally translate to "woman who is or has been graced"


Haven't said differently. The thing is the idea of being "graced" also showing the completeness and continuation of that "grace" (NOT that here is a woman who can bestow "grace" on her own). IMO the phrase "gratiae plena" encompasses that notion, but (really I'm not trying to be difficult) I don't see how "favored" does OR how "favored" could be interchangeable with "graced". (As I said both of us are "favored" now so how does that word give the idea that Mary, the mother of God was graced beyond measure, now and always; and I never even heard of the idea that "full of grace" could mean that it could be emptyed at some future time.)

Help me out here. And honestly, if it is like you said it literally means "woman who is or has been graced": "grace" being the operative word, why only my Douay Rheimes (gratiae plena) and the footnotes of my KJV (muched graced) mention it.
 
Upvote 0

geocajun

Priest of the holy smackrament
Dec 25, 2002
25,483
1,689
✟35,477.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
Haven't said differently. The thing is the idea of being "graced" also showing the completeness and continuation of that "grace" (NOT that here is a woman who can bestow "grace" on her own). IMO the phrase "gratiae plena" encompasses that notion, but (really I'm not trying to be difficult) I don't see how "favored" does OR how "favored" could be interchangeable with "graced". (As I said both of us are "favored" now so how does that word give the idea that Mary, the mother of God was graced beyond measure, now and always; and I never even heard of the idea that "full of grace" could mean that it could be emptyed at some future time.)

I believe often times catholics tend to try to prove Mary's status as immaculately conceived, perpetually a virgin, and without sin by projecting more meaning into this verse than is there, and thus get hung up on claiming that it must read "Full of grace" or else nothing makes sense. However there is nothing about "full of grace" which means these explicitly things. We must look to the other verses of scripture to prove these things out.

Help me out here. And honestly, if it is like you said it literally means "woman who is or has been graced": "grace" being the operative word, why only my Douay Rheimes (gratiae plena) and the footnotes of my KJV (muched graced) mention it.
The DRV is based on the Vulgate, which is based on St. Jeromes translation of the greek "kecharitomenE" to "gratia plena". More modern translations do not use the vulgate, but rather the greek preferring in general to use 'favor' instead of 'grace' however either word is acceptable. My RSV-CE for example, says "full of grace" and then the footnotes says "Or highly favored".
 
Upvote 0

AMDG

Tenderized for Christ
May 24, 2004
25,362
1,286
75
Pacific Northwest, United States
✟54,522.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
I believe often times catholics tend to try to prove Mary's status as immaculately conceived, perpetually a virgin, and without sin by projecting more meaning into this verse than is there, and thus get hung up on claiming that it must read "Full of grace" or else nothing makes sense. However there is nothing about "full of grace" which means these explicitly things. We must look to the other verses of scripture to prove these things out.

The four Marian doctrines have their own proofs (although the statement by an angel that Mary is already graced by God is IMO pretty darn good as a "proof" for the Immaculate Conception), but my own problem with "highly favored" verses "full of grace" (or your "woman who is or has been graced") is that the two words are NOT interchangeable. My dictionary has different meanings for "favored" and for "graced". And as to looking to other verses of Scripture to prove things out, if I'm not mistaken the present-future tense of the word "charitoo" or "complete and continuation of grace" is only used twice in Scriptures.


The DRV is based on the Vulgate, which is based on St. Jeromes translation of the greek "kecharitomenE" to "gratia plena". More modern translations do not use the vulgate, but rather the greek preferring in general to use 'favor' instead of 'grace' however either word is acceptable. My RSV-CE for example, says "full of grace" and then the footnotes says "Or highly favored".

Okay, but why "favored" for "graced"? When I was researching the very Scriptural "Hail Mary", I thought it particulary odd when my Jerusalem and my New American (both Catholic Bibles) had no mention that the angel considered Mary "graced" (she was just "favored"), but my King James footnotes did!
 
Upvote 0

geocajun

Priest of the holy smackrament
Dec 25, 2002
25,483
1,689
✟35,477.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
The four Marian doctrines have their own proofs (although the statement by an angel that Mary is already graced by God is IMO pretty darn good as a "proof" for the Immaculate Conception), but my own problem with "highly favored" verses "full of grace" (or your "woman who is or has been graced") is that the two words are NOT interchangeable. My dictionary has different meanings for "favored" and for "graced". And as to looking to other verses of Scripture to prove things out, if I'm not mistaken the present-future tense of the word "charitoo" or "complete and continuation of grace" is only used twice in Scriptures.

http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?sourceid=Mozilla-search&va=grace

The sense of the word meaning 'favor' seems very appropriate for what was being conveyed to Mary.

Okay, but why "favored" for "graced"? When I was researching the very Scriptural "Hail Mary", I thought it particulary odd when my Jerusalem and my New American (both Catholic Bibles) had no mention that the angel considered Mary "graced" (she was just "favored"), but my King James footnotes did!

Let's look at this another way. There are two places in scripture where the phrase "Full of grace" appear. Do you know where they are? It is not Luke 1:28 as it does not appear there, but for some reason you want to make it appear there. Why is that?
 
Upvote 0

AMDG

Tenderized for Christ
May 24, 2004
25,362
1,286
75
Pacific Northwest, United States
✟54,522.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
There are two places in scripture where the phrase "Full of grace" appear. Do you know where they are? It is not Luke 1:28 as it does not appear there, but for some reason you want to make it appear there. Why is that?

I sense that you are getting tired of me with this. I'm sorry.

The two places wherein a form of the word "charitoo" is used are Luke 1:28 (keCHARITOmene) and Ephesians 1:6 (eCHARITOsen). My KJV has it translated "grace" as "charitoo" should be. In fact, in both cases it shows enrichment in grace. IMO, to have "found favor" is nothing fantastically special since it was a term used all the time. However, to be enriched in grace, as if complete and never ending, is "special", again IMO.

However as I said, all this was started when I began researching the very Scriptural "Hail Mary". It IS Scriptural (although many don't realize it--especially when "full of grace" is removed and another concept put in its place.)
 
Upvote 0

geocajun

Priest of the holy smackrament
Dec 25, 2002
25,483
1,689
✟35,477.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Democrat
I sense that you are getting tired of me with this. I'm sorry.

it isn't you, i'm just generally impatient. Sorry :( it is something I need to work on.

The two places wherein a form of the word "charitoo" is used are Luke 1:28 (keCHARITOmene) and Ephesians 1:6 (eCHARITOsen). My KJV has it translated "grace" as "charitoo" should be. In fact, in both cases it shows enrichment in grace. IMO, to have "found favor" is nothing fantastically special since it was a term used all the time. However, to be enriched in grace, as if complete and never ending, is "special", again IMO.

However as I said, all this was started when I began researching the very Scriptural "Hail Mary". It IS Scriptural (although many don't realize it--especially when "full of grace" is removed and another concept put in its place.)
Here is my opinion on this verse. I believe the reason many exegetes prefer to use 'highly favored one' is because it is very reasonable, that the Angel Gabriel is telling her that she has found more favor than any other woman, and will be blessed as the mother of God. This makes more sense rationally, than to say "hi, full of grace" which - at least someone like me would try to understand in terms of 'what type of grace (habitual, actual?) ; was she just then filled with it; what the heck does that mean anyway?'
I believe this is why the meaning is almost universally prefered as 'highly favored' among exegetes. That said however, I could frankly not care about the debate, as I think either is a good translation.
This debate (no ours, but in general) has taken on a life of its own, and people often project meaning into this scripture which I don't belief is there and end up building a strawman which will be torn apart by a capable apologist and then what are they left with? I guess that is my source of irritation with the debate actually. I realize i'm at odds with many catholics on my opinion on this topic, but I think its a valid argument either way and far too much energy on both sides has been spent on this.
It is much easier to simply explain to a protestant that Luke 1:28 has two valid translations, than to try to explain to them their bibles are wrong, and the Rosary is indeed biblical (which of course it is!), etc..
 
Upvote 0

AMDG

Tenderized for Christ
May 24, 2004
25,362
1,286
75
Pacific Northwest, United States
✟54,522.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Well, thank you for your time in this. I think I understand a little why the "highly favored" translation is used, even though, I confess to preferring "full of grace" as being more straightforward and IMO fits better with the other "graced" word in Ephesians. A matter of "taste"--like someone preferring jazz music to another's country. When I want to read "full of grace", I'll switch to my Douay Rheimes or even the footnotes of my KJV! (Eventually I plan on getting a RSV-CE as well.)

It is much easier to simply explain to a protestant that Luke 1:28 has two valid translations, than to try to explain to them their bibles are wrong

That's the funny part--actually the only Bible (I had at the time) that indicated that Mary was "graced" was my KJV and that IS Protestant!
 
Upvote 0

Spotty

ilikemovies
Jun 28, 2003
949
53
42
Visit site
✟16,369.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
Politics
US-Republican
The word can be translated as "fully graced one." As a Native American tribesman would be called "Running Bear," the Greek used in that term is also denoting a title of sorts. And that the grace she received was given to her "in full" in the past; it was not a result of her carrying Christ, but a precursor to it.
 
  • Like
Reactions: PassthePeace1
Upvote 0

PassthePeace1

CARO CARDO SALUTIS
Jun 6, 2005
13,265
700
✟31,760.00
Faith
Catholic
Marital Status
Married
The word can be translated as "fully graced one." As a Native American tribesman would be called "Running Bear," the Greek used in that term is also denoting a title of sorts. And that the grace she received was given to her "in full" in the past; it was not a result of her carrying Christ, but a precursor to it.


I, for my own personal reason, have preferred "Full of Grace". I was raised Bapist, and "highly favored", always seemed to reinforce, the prostestant view point...that she was...so to speak, just picked out of the crowd.

"Fully graced one", does seem to hit the nail on the head, and convey...that she was immaculately concieved.

Jason, did put for an compelling persuasion for "highly favored", which does look like it supports, Spotty's definition of "fully graced one", because both communicate a past event.

However, still for my own personal devotions...I will be saying ...Hail, Mary Full of Grace, it just has a more "warm comfy" feeling.

Peace be with you...Pam
 
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
http://www.webster.com/cgi-bin/dictionary?sourceid=Mozilla-search&va=grace

The sense of the word meaning 'favor' seems very appropriate for what was being conveyed to Mary.



Let's look at this another way. There are two places in scripture where the phrase "Full of grace" appear. Do you know where they are? It is not Luke 1:28 as it does not appear there, but for some reason you want to make it appear there. Why is that?



Why does how an English translation reads have any bearing on what is said in the original language?

There is only ONE place in all of scripture that the word KECHARITOMENE is used.

It is used as a DIRECT address . . meaning it is used in place of Mary's name or pro-noun.

So the Angel is saying, this is who you are . .KECHARITOMENE.

This is tantamount to a name change, but it is not a name change for it is who Mary has always been.

This type of addressing of someone is HIGHLY significant. It is VERY hard to read "too much" into this.


Also, KECHARITOMENE is in the AORIST, PREFECT, PASSIVE tense


"The 'perfect' action of the participle is considered to have been completed before the time of the speaker. How long before is not a consideration but the Greek verbal idea is that the action has already been completed. Time is still secondary but perfected action must imply the past in relationship to the speaker. The person using the word is confessing that the one referred to has already been [graced]."


" 'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians. 1:6, . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' "(A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)​

"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament).​

Here is some interesting exposition on this verse by the ECF's:

The Greek Fathers

Here are a number of ancient experts and what they say it means; each of them is a Greek-speaker from a culture basically identical to that of St. Luke; there are a couple repeats from the previous thread, but from them I give new material, too; the passages are expositions by the authors of the meaning of Luke 1:28, generally centered on chaire, Kecharitomene:​


Gregory Thaumaturgus (205-270 AD):
O purest one

O purest virgin

where the Holy Spirit is, there are all things readily ordered. Where divine grace is present

the soil that, all untilled, bears bounteous fruit

in the life of the flesh, was in possession of the incorruptible citizenship, and walked as such in all manner of virtues, and lived a life more excellent than man's common standard

thou hast put on the vesture of purity

has selected thee as the holy one and the wholly fair;

and through thy holy, and chaste, and pure, and undefiled womb

since of all the race of man thou art by birth the holy one, and the more honourable, and the purer, and the more pious than any other: and thou hast a mind whiter than the snow, and a body made purer than any gold

Akathist hymn (5th or 6th century AD):
Hail, O you, through whom Joy will shine forth!

Hail, O you, through whom the curse will disappear!

Hail, O Restoration of the Fallen Adam!

Hail, O Redemption of the Tears of Eve!

Hail, O Peak above the reach of human thought!

Hail, O Depth even beyond the sight of angels!

Hail, O you who have become a Kingly Throne!

Hail, O you who carry Him Who Carries All!

Hail, O Star who manifest the Sun!

Hail, O Womb of the Divine Incarnation!

Hail, O you through whom creation is renewed!

Hail, O you through whom the Creator becomes a Babe!

Hail, O Bride and Maiden ever-pure!

Theodotus of Ancyra (early 5th century AD):
Hail, our desirable gladness;

Hail, O rejoicing of the churches;

Hail, O name that breates out sweetness;

Hail, face that radiates divinity and grace;

Hail, most venerable memory;

Hail, O spiritual and saving fleece;

Hail, O Mother of unsetting splendor, filled with light;

Hail, unstained Mother of holiness;

Hail, most limpid font of the lifegiving wave;

Hail, new Mother, workshop of the birth.


Hail, ineffable mother of a mystery beyond understanding;

Hail, new book of a new Scripture, of which, as Isaiah tells, angels and men are faithful witnesses;


Hail, alabaster jar of sanctifying ointment;

Hail, best trader of the coin of virginity;

Hail, creature embracing your Creator;

Hail, little container containing the Uncontainable.



Romanos the Melodist (d. c. 560 AD):
Hail, untouched Virgin! Hail, chosen spouse of God! Hail holy one! Hail, delightful and beautiful! Hail, joyful sight! Hail, unseeded earth! Hail, uncontaminate! Hail, Mother who knows not man! Hail, Virgin Bride!


John the Theologian (c. 400 AD):
"[T]he Lord said to his Mother, ‘Let your heart rejoice and be glad, for every favor and every gift has been given to you from my Father in heaven and from me and from the Holy Spirit. Every soul that calls upon your name shall not be ashamed, but shall find mercy and comfort and support and confidence, both in the world that now is and in that which is to come, in the presence of my Father in the heavens’" (The Falling Asleep of Mary).​




“Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!” The original Greek was kecharitomene, the perfect passive participle of charis, grace. St. Jerome translated it into Latin as gratia plena, “full of grace.” In Greek the perfect stem denotes a completed action with a permanent result. Kecharitomene means completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace. The Protestant Revised Standard Version translates [SIZE=-2]Lk 1:28[/SIZE] as “highly favored daughter.” This is no mere difference of opinion but a conscious effort to distort St. Luke’s original Greek text. Had Mary been no more than “highly favored,” she would have been indistinguishable from Sarah the wife of Abraham, Anna the mother of Samuel, or Elizabeth the mother of John the Baptist, all of whom were long childless and “highly favored” because God acceded to their pleas to bear children. But neither Sarah nor Anna is described as kecharitomene in the Septuagint, a translation by 70 Jewish scholars of the Hebrew Scriptures for Greek-speaking Jews in Egypt. Nor does Luke use it to describe Elizabeth. Kecharitomene in this usage is reserved for Mary of Nazareth.​






In Luke 1:28, the angel Gabriel greets Mary as "full of grace". Protestant translations often render this as "highly favored", but this is a weak, inaccurate translation. The Greek term here is kecharitomene, a perfect present participle of the verb charitoo, which denotes "grace". A perfect participle indicates an action completed in the past with existing results, and a present participle denotes continuous or repeated action. So kecharitomene means "you who were and continue to be full of and completed in grace". Now grace is not mere unmerited favor, but God's gift of spiritual life and communion with Himself. Sin and grace are opposed (Romans 5:20-21), and grace saves us from sin (Eph 2:5, 8). So Mary's fullness of grace indicates a complete absence of sin. Thus Luke 1:28 provides a second hint at Mary's sinlessness.​






St. Lawrence, in his own version of an argument against the notion sola scriptura, shows that the unified tradition of both the Greek and Latin interpreters confirms the teaching of Mary's unique plenitude of grace:
I know that the Greek text at Luke 1:28 says kecharitomene and that this word means favored and pleasing or uniquely loved and dear. I also know, however, that the holy Church of God has always from the beginning read "full of grace" and that this universal reading has been supported and fully ratified by the reckoning of all theologians and by the approval of all the holy Doctors, even by the reckoning and approval of those among the Latins who were skilled at Greek. Jerome, Ambrose, Augustine and others acknowledged this reading; they did not alter it, but constantly preserved it. St. Jerome wrote: "Holy Mary is greeted as full of grace, because she conceived him in whom the full plenitude of the Divinity dwelled bodily" (PL 22, 379). St. Ambrose wrote: "It is well said that she is full of grace, who alone obtained the grace which no one else merited so that she was filled by the Author of grace" (PL 15, 1285). St. Augustine wrote: "Mary, full of grace, is said to have found favor with God in order that she might be the mother of her Lord, rather of the Lord of all." He wrote further: "When the angel said to her, hail full of grace, he showed that the anger of the first judgment was removed and that the full favor of benediction restored" (PL 39, 1991).​


Why do I recount the opinions of the Latin Doctors when the Greek Doctors agree with us and also expound the phrase in the same way? The great Athanasius wrote: "It was brought about that you were called full of grace because you were one who abounded in all grace." And he also wrote: "Therefore she was called full of grace because through the implementation of the Holy Spirit she abounded in every grace." And again he wrote: "From the riches of the divine charisms she was called kecharitomene." He often repeated that Mary was full of a singular grace and, as he himself used to say, she was steeped by the Holy Spirit in all the essential virtues (Cf. PG 28, 339). Epiphanius noted the immense grace of Mary and called her a person adorned with many virtues, a spiritual ark of glory, a golden vessel in which was contained heavenly manna, a spiritual sea and ocean of graces (PG 43, 490). St. John Damascene also wrote: "You are the bedroom of the Holy Spirit, a sea of graces, totally beautiful and wholly near to God" (PG 96, 848).​


The angel Gabriel seemed to wish nothing else at all to be understood but that Mary was uniquely beloved of God and dear to Him, full of grace in the eyes of the Lord, seeing how he chose and asked her to be his most beloved spouse. To join the Latin with the Greek reading, Mary is at once said to be favored and full of grace. She is truly the favored woman about whom Solomon speaks in Proverbs: "A gracious woman gets honor" (11:16). She was favored just like Esther about whom we read that she was a woman favored in the eyes of all but especially in the eyes of Ahasuerus, who loved her above all women.​


We read of no other woman being full of grace, although we hear about not a few men being full of and filled with the Holy Spirit. Of Bezalel, the architect of the holy sanctuary, God says: "See, the Lord has called by name Bezalel…and he has filled him with the Spirit of God, with ability, with intelligence, with knowledge, and with all craftsmanship" (Ex 35:30-31). Likewise it is said of Joshua that he was filled with the spirit of wisdom, because Moses laid his hands upon him as we read in Deuteronomy (34:9). Gabriel foretells of John the Baptist that "he will be filled with the Holy Spirit, even from his mother's womb" (Lk 1:15). Of the Apostles we read: "they were all filled with the Holy Spirit" (Acts 2:4). These men, however, were not full of grace in the same way as Mary. God, the creator of all things, filled all the stars of the firmament with heavenly light, but illuminated the sun and the moon with the chief and greatest light. Christ is as the sun, which shines brilliantly with its own light and Mary is an image of the moon, which is adorned by the greater light, but nevertheless possesses this shared light in its own right. So we read that Christ is full of grace: "The Word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth"; and "From his fullness have we all received"; and "Grace and truth came through Jesus Christ" (Jn 1:14-17). After Christ, however, Mary is declared to be full of grace insofar as she received grace from God, the giver of all things, from whom comes "every good endowment and every perfect gift" (Jm 1:17). Hence the angel included both grace and God in his greeting, the effect with its cause, saying: "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you."​


Peace
 
  • Like
Reactions: AMDG
Upvote 0

thereselittleflower

Well-Known Member
Nov 9, 2003
34,832
1,526
✟57,855.00
Faith
Catholic
And this, though it does not deal directly with kecharitomene, is wonderfully beuatiful:
I see this joyful assembly of holy bishops who, at the invitation of the blessed Mother of God, Mary ever Virgin, have gathered here with enthusiasm. And although I am sad, the presence of these holy Fathers fills me with joy. Among us is fulfilled the sweet words of the psalmist David: "Behold how good and sweet it is, brethren, to dwell together in unity."​


Hail Mary Theotokos, venerable treasure of the whole world, star who never sets, crown of virginity, scepter of the orthodox law, indestructible Mother and Virgin, for the sake of the one who is called "blessed" in the holy Gospels, the one who "comes in the name of the Lord."​


We hail you, who held in your virginal womb him whom the heavens cannot contain; it is you through whom the Holy Trinity is glorified and adored throughout the earth; through whom the heavens exult; through whom the angels and archangels rejoice; through whom the demons are put to flight; through whom the tempter, the devil, is cast down from heaven; through whom the fallen creature is raised up to heaven; through whom that all creation, once imprisoned by idolatry, has reached knowledge of the truth; through whom holy baptism has come to believers, with "oil of gladness"; through whom churches have been founded throughout the world; through whom nations are brought to repentance.​


What more shall I say? It is through you the light of the only-begotten Son of God has shone "for those who dwelt in darkness and in the shadow of death"; it is through you that the prophets proclaimed the future, that the apostles preach salvation to the nations, that the dead are raised and the kings reign, in the name of the Trinity.​

Is there a single person who can worthily sing the praises of Mary? She is both mother and virgin. What a marvel! A marvel which overwhelms me! Who has ever heard it said that the builder was prevented from dwelling in the temple which he himself built? Should one criticize him who gave his servant the title of mother?​


Thus the whole world rejoices. May it be given us to worship and adore the unity, to worship and adore the indivisible Trinity, by singing the praises of Mary ever virgin, that is the holy church, and those of her Son and immaculate Spouse, to whom be glory for ever and ever, Amen.​
St. Cyril of Alexandria, homily given at the Council of Ephesus, June 22, 431.
 
Upvote 0
Status
Not open for further replies.