Isaiah 61:2

[jollyjosh]

"To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;"

When is this?
When did Isaiah say this?

 

[justified]

Isaiah did not. It's a later writer whose writings were attached to Isaiah's for various (partly-understood) reasons.

 

[jollyjosh]

Thanks,
So when is it said?
When did it happen/should happen?

 

[justified]

Tell me about the context.

 

[AllTalkNoAction]

Jesus quoted that prophecy at the start of his ministry:-

"The Spirit of the Lord is upon me, because he hath anointed me to preach the gospel to the poor; he hath sent me to heal the brokenhearted, to preach deliverance to the captives, and recovering of sight to the blind, to set at liberty them that are bruised,
:19: To preach the acceptable year of the Lord.
:20: And he closed the book"

but deliberately stopped short of "the day of vengeance of our God" because that bit relates to the great and terrible day of his return.

If you have received the anointing Jesus had and are fulfilling the ministry it will be a Great Day for you.

 

[dcyates]

"To proclaim the acceptable year of the LORD, and the day of vengeance of our God; to comfort all that mourn;"

When is this?
When did Isaiah say this?

I believe it's generally accepted that the latter chapters of Isaiah were composed sometime during the post-exilic period. Including the preceding verse, which is pretty key to properly understanding the text, it's a passage that Jesus quotes from to mark the beginning of his public ministry in Luke's Gospel (4.18-19). So, I would assume that that is when it happened. He stops short of also citing the words, "and the day of vengeance of our God," likely because he was not heralding a time of God's judgment and vengeance, but rather a time of healing and redemption; the advent of the Good News of the Kingdom and salvation.