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Is the Term 'Fornication' Archaic?

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d0c markus

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Last night I had a convorsation with someone, who insisted that the term 'fornication' in the bible is outdated, rather is "archaic" and no longer applicable today and that the NIV is correct when it translates it as "sexual immorality" in 1 Cor 6:13:

1CO 6:12 "Everything is permissible for me"--but not everything is beneficial. "Everything is permissible for me"--but I will not be mastered by anything. 13 "Food for the stomach and the stomach for food"--but God will destroy them both. The body is not meant for sexual immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body.

Why or why not may she be correct? Is fornication condemned by the Jesus and his Apostles, or not? If not what specifically does "sexual immorality" here apply to?


 

Sword-In-Hand

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Are they trying to imply that fornication and sexual immorality are not the same thing?

Websters says fornication is: voluntary sexual intercourse between persons not married to each other 2: extramarital sex that willfully and maliciously interferes with marriage relations; "adultery is often cited as grounds for divorce"

and for sexual immorality n : the evil ascribed to sexual acts that violate social conventions;

What the Corinithians were implying is that sex, like food was ok to do in abundance since they believed it did nothing for or against their spirituality. They reasoned that eating food was ok, because it was a source of life and since sex was part of procreation it was alright as well. Paul refutes that reason by saying that our bodies are the temple of the Lord.

Fornication and sexual immorality are sex outside of the holy bond of marriage. So that would include homosexuality, beastiality, adultery, and polygamy.

I think Jesus and the Apostles condemned both. Jesus said if we lust in our hearts we have committed adultery, and adultery is sex with someone who is not our husband or wife.

I'm kind of confused on what she was implying. Is she saying it's ok to fornicate as long as it's not sexually immoral?
 
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seebs

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The problem here is a historical one; the word "fornication" exists solely to be a translation of a Greek word (porneia) which means, well... That's a good question, what exactly it means. It clearly denotes sexually immoral behavior. The usage changed over time, so it's hard to be sure exactly what was denoted.

One thing that a lot of people don't realize is that sex between married people can be porneia, even though it can't be "fornication" in the very strict and formalized definition we have in modern English.

Note that a full discussion of this will run into Rule 4 pretty early on, as it could conceivably lead to things which would be considered "promotion" of sex outside of a legally recognized wedding; as, for instance, during the periods of history when there was no legal concept of "wedding" at all. :p
 
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Crazy Liz

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"Fornication" is a rather archaic English word. Today, the phrase "sexual immorality" is more often used and better understood. Both are reasonable translations of the Greek word porneia. "Archaic" has to do with which English word or phrase is a better choice for a modern translation.

Probably "sexual immorality" is a better translation because the archaic word "fornication," when used today, is often ascribed a very specific technical meaning, whereas "sexual immorality" is more general, as is the Greek word, porneia, I believe.
 
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BT

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d0c markus said:
Last night I had a convorsation with someone, who insisted that the term 'fornication' in the bible is outdated, rather is "archaic" and no longer applicable today and that the NIV is correct when it translates it as "sexual immorality" in 1 Cor 6:13:

1CO 6:12 "Everything is permissible for me"--but not everything is beneficial. "Everything is permissible for me"--but I will not be mastered by anything. 13 "Food for the stomach and the stomach for food"--but God will destroy them both. The body is not meant for sexual immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body.

Why or why not may she be correct? Is fornication condemned by the Jesus and his Apostles, or not? If not what specifically does "sexual immorality" here apply to?


Well I, naturally, have a big problem with anyone who seeks to "fix" the Bible. Or more particularily "correct" the Bible. Though we must be able to admit that the 1611 version of the Bible had some words which were (not archaic) different in meaning than now, as the English language has evolved from then till now. Fornication however is not a word that should be replaced with "sexual immorality".

In the Greek New Testament there are three words which are translated "fornication". To leave the words as fornication is to leave the intent and the scope of the word alone, to change it to "sexual immorality" is to change the meaning in some verses.

Three Words for Fornication

1. The most common word for "fornication" in the Greek New Testament is

porneia (por-ni-ah) (e.g. Matthew 5:32)

This word comes from the word proneuw (porn-yoo-o).

porniah means "harlotry (including adultery and incest); figuratively, idolatry: -- fornication.

2. The word proneuw (porn-yoo-o). Also appears in the Greek New Testament (e.g. Revelation 2:14).

This word comes from pronh (por-nay).

pornyoo means "to act the harlot, i.e. (literally) indulge unlawful lust (of either sex), or (figuratively) practise idolatry: commit(fornication).

3. Finally the word ekporneuw (ek-porn-yoo-o). Also appears in the Greek New Testament (e.g. Jude 1:7)

This is a compound word that comes from:

ek - a primary preposition denoting origin (the point whence action or motion proceeds), from, out (of place, time, or cause; literal or figurative; direct or remote):-- after, among, X are, at, betwixt(-yond), by (the means of), exceedingly, (+ abudantly more), for (-th), from (among, forth, up), etc. etc.
Often used in composition, with the same general import; often of completion.

and

Porn-yoo-o (which is defined above)



So we find that to change the word fornication to "sexual immorality" is to change meaning and tenses, even gender specific passages in meaning. There is no reason to "dumb" down the Bible. Let's take this case as a perfect example of expository Bible study. We've got two people. Doc and his friend. Now his friend decides that the NIV translation of "sexual immorality" is fine so she just substitutes the word (and meaning) in her Bible and her study. Doc on the other hand asks the question "what does fornication really mean", so he looks up all the passages that mention "fornication" then looks up the words that are translated "fornication".. then looks up other passages in which the same word is translated as something else to get the true and deeper meaning of "fornication". Who walks away more the "Berean"? I'll let you decide.


Oh and don't even get me started on the Hebrew words that are translated "fornication" and what they mean and how they are translated in context and other passages.. I'll leave that Bible study to you...
 
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TwinCrier

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But many people do not view premarital sex as immoral. Just look at the poll I did: http://www.christianforums.com/t1011852 There are some who count themselves Christians that not only don't think homosexual acts are wrong, they celebrate them. "Sexual Immorality" can mean anything. I have never heard of anyone not knowing what fornication was.
 
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d0c markus

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Sword-In-Hand said:
Are they trying to imply that fornication and sexual immorality are not the same thing?

I'm kind of confused on what she was implying. Is she saying it's ok to fornicate as long as it's not sexually immoral?
Thats what I gleaned from it.
 
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BT

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GreenEyedLady said:
I miss you BT! How is the baby doing?
Hiya GEL. Yeah sorry she's keeping me busy. Lots of late nights. Luckily I was able to take a month off of work so I've been here to help out. I'm on the night shift. I thought I would be able to still type and be involved but she's a tad fussy at times and I can't really sit down with her. She's doing great now, sleeping about 4 hours at a time (at night). We're very blessed to have a happy and healthy baby. We appreciate all of the prayers that have went up for us from all of our friends here at CF.
 
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Crazy Liz

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It seems like about half of us think that today "fornication" is a broader and more inclusive term than "sexual immorality":
TwinCrier said:
But many people do not view premarital sex as immoral. [...] "Sexual Immorality" can mean anything. I have never heard of anyone not knowing what fornication was.
Sword-In-Hand said:
I'm kind of confused on what she was implying. Is she saying it's ok to fornicate as long as it's not sexually immoral?
...and the other half of us think "sexual immorality" is a narrower and less inclusive term than "fornication":
Crazy Liz said:
Probably "sexual immorality" is a better translation because the archaic word "fornication," when used today, is often ascribed a very specific technical meaning, whereas "sexual immorality" is more general, as is the Greek word, porneia, I believe.
seebs said:
The problem with using the word "fornication" is that it does not denote at least some acts which are clearly porneia, but are definitely not fornication.
...and at least one of us thinks our Bibles should make the meaning of words obscure so you have to study Greek and Hebrew to understand it:
BT said:
We've got two people. Doc and his friend. Now his friend decides that the NIV translation of "sexual immorality" is fine so she just substitutes the word (and meaning) in her Bible and her study. Doc on the other hand asks the question "what does fornication really mean", so he looks up all the passages that mention "fornication" then looks up the words that are translated "fornication".. then looks up other passages in which the same word is translated as something else to get the true and deeper meaning of "fornication". Who walks away more the "Berean"? I'll let you decide.


Oh and don't even get me started on the Hebrew words that are translated "fornication" and what they mean and how they are translated in context and other passages.. I'll leave that Bible study to you...
 
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BT

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Crazy Liz said:
...and at least one of us thinks our Bibles should make the meaning of words obscure so you have to study Greek and Hebrew to understand it:
My Greek prof. put it this way. The difference between reading Greek and reading English is quite like the difference between watching a black and white TV (English) and a color TV (Greek). But is Greek necessary? No. English is more than sufficient (depending on which version of English you use.. I certainly would not recommend the New World Translation).

The point is that the meaning of the words is sufficient to the context of the verse. To randomly change words is not as simple as "clarifying", to change words is to change meaning. If a student wants to get the exact meaning of certain words there are tools available. If you don't want to use the tools then the word itself is sufficient to the context. You do not need to study Greek and Hebrew to understand the Bible. Is every man a scholar? No. Is every man a teacher? No.

Let's look at the Bible (if you don't mind) to solidify the understanding..

Ephesians 4:11-12 "And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; And he gave some, apostles; and some, prophets; and some, evangelists; and some, pastors and teachers; (12)For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ:"

Now there are some who miss the obvious in these verses. God has appointed some people to specific functions... such as evangelists, pastors and teachers. But what exactly is the purpose of this appointment? If you look at verse 12 you see it. "For the perfecting of the saints, for the work of the ministry, for the edifying of the body of Christ."

So what is the purpose of pastors and teachers etc.? To perfect the saints (all Christians) to do the work of the ministry. Now in this thread we see the practical use of the teaching.

We have two people who are talking about something that is pretty "scholarly" stuff (changing a word in the Bible.. whether it's right to change it or not). Then we get some folks who come in and talk about what they think the verse means or the word means. It's depth and breadth. Then we even get a few people who come in and say .. Oh it's from such and such a word... (and they were incorrect.. because it does not always come from one word, but rather there are three different words used to translate the idea).

The point is not that I think our Bibles should be made obscure. The point is that God has called some of us to be pastors and teachers, that we through our study and prayer and the education of the Holy Spirit can help to perfect the saints (give them understanding). Now if you don't like that idea, then your argument is with Jesus Christ, not me.

So it is not necessary for all to be students of Greek and Hebrew, Systematic Theology, Hermeneutics etc. Because God has provided those people to us. You know a friend of mine once met two men in Seminary who were teaching on lexical forms of Greek verbs. These two men in a conversation with my friend talked about how "We are called of God to write this lexicon". My friend thought that was a bit funny. It had never dawned on him that God could call people to write lexicons... when of course He would.


Besides, I think there really is something to 2 Timothy 2:15

Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth.
 
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Crazy Liz

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BT said:
My Greek prof. put it this way. The difference between reading Greek and reading English is quite like the difference between watching a black and white TV (English) and a color TV (Greek).

Mine said it was like taking the wrapper off the Twinkie before taking a bite. ;)
 
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ZiSunka

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I think the ridicule of Christianity on TV has made the word "fornication" laughable and unusable in speaking to people about sin. Remember the Church Lady on SNL who used to bellow the word, "fornication" whenever she interviewed someone? It was meant to mock the idea of sexual purity and to mock Christians who are concerned with purity. I bet if you got a room of one hundred people together and said the word "fornication," they would all laugh.

Sexual immorality, though doesn't have the SNL factor attached to it. Everyone knows what it means, too. You don't have to get out a dictionary to understand it. Everyone knows that it means doing something sexually that is out of the bounds of decent. The discussion then becomes, "what is decent."
 
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Glorianna

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Crazy Liz said:
"Fornication" is a rather archaic English word. Today, the phrase "sexual immorality" is more often used and better understood. Both are reasonable translations of the Greek word porneia. "Archaic" has to do with which English word or phrase is a better choice for a modern translation.

Probably "sexual immorality" is a better translation because the archaic word "fornication," when used today, is often ascribed a very specific technical meaning, whereas "sexual immorality" is more general, as is the Greek word, porneia, I believe.

Thanks for sharing! :clap:
 
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Ave Maria

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d0c markus said:
Last night I had a convorsation with someone, who insisted that the term 'fornication' in the bible is outdated, rather is "archaic" and no longer applicable today and that the NIV is correct when it translates it as "sexual immorality" in 1 Cor 6:13:

1CO 6:12 "Everything is permissible for me"--but not everything is beneficial. "Everything is permissible for me"--but I will not be mastered by anything. 13 "Food for the stomach and the stomach for food"--but God will destroy them both. The body is not meant for sexual immorality, but for the Lord, and the Lord for the body.

Why or why not may she be correct? Is fornication condemned by the Jesus and his Apostles, or not? If not what specifically does "sexual immorality" here apply to?
Hi everyone. I have a confession to make. D0c markus is speaking about me. It was him and I who had this conversation. I have thought about this a lot since then and have come around in my thinking. Basically I thought that by accepting the NIV's translation, this would mean that sex before marriage was not wrong. I was trying to justify a sin based upon a translation of the Bible and I have since learned that this position cannot be defended. However, I do believe that both fornication and sexual immorality are accurate translations of the Greek. I have come to believe that they both mean the same thing. This issue has caused me to do a lot of thinking since markus and I had that conversation. I have repented of my sin before God and I hope that I can receive forgiveness from all of you here on Christian Forums as well. God has been convicting me of this for some time. Please, I ask of all of you to please forgive me. :cry:
 
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Ave Maria

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I just wanted to add my apologies to anyone that I have offended because of this. I have backslidden and am trying to come back to the Lord. Please, I ask that all of you will please pray for me. Thank you.
 
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