Doug Brents said: There is no parenthesis, not even one suggested or hinted at.
I already proved otherwise in post #104. So once again, the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (
Luke 24:47;
Acts 2:38;
3:19;
5:31;
10:43-47;
11:17,
18;
15:7-
9;
16:31;
26:18).
*Perfect Harmony*
The Gentiles in Acts 10 received the miraculous empowerment of the Spirit, just as the Jews did on Pentecost. The Jews already had the indwelling of the Spirit (John 20:22). The only thing they received on Pentecost was miraculous empowerment (tongues and praise) of the Spirit after they were saved. This is the same thing that the Gentiles received (tongues and praise) before they were saved. The phrase "received the Holy Spirit" most often refers to miraculous empowerment, not the indwelling of the Spirit.
Absolutely false. You blatantly deny the truth that these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 10:45, also confirmed in Acts 11:17,18 and Acts 15:7-9. In addition to receiving
the gift of the Holy Spirit, they also received the spiritual gift of tongues which confirmed to the Jews that God has accepted these Gentiles as well. To deny this crystal-clear truth is to be dishonest.
In Acts 16:31, Paul told them to believe in Jesus, and then he went on to teach them about Jesus (including about the necessity of water baptism) as it is recorded in Acts 16:32.
Water baptism "followed" believing on the Lord Jesus Christ and being saved. If water baptism was necessary for salvation, then Paul would have added it to believing on the Lord Jesus Christ in Acts 16:31 and numerous other passages of scripture which only mention belief/faith in connection with receiving salvation. (John 3:15,16,18; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:24-28; 4:5-6; 5:1; Ephesians 2:8 etc..).
No, that is very much discord in Scripture. You are explaining away, ignoring, or reinterpreting many Scriptures in order to justify your "perfect harmony", but it just doesn't work.
You are the master of irony.
There is only one way to enter into the Kingdom of God, and that is through both the Spirit AND water (John 3:5). You want to accept the Spirit but ignore the water.
I don't ignore the water at all and in John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit. He
did not say born of baptism and the Spirit and He also did not say unless one is water baptized, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions
"living water" in John 4:10, 14 and He
connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said,
out of his heart will flow rivers of
living water. But this He spoke
concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the
source of living water (which reaches the heart)
and spiritual cleansing.
If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. Jesus still did not mention baptism in (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) and believing is not baptism and believing "precedes" baptism and we are saved through believing/placing faith in Christ alone for salvation. It's just that simple.
Also "water" is used in the Bible as an
emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is
associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5)
So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.
But the water is just as essential as the Spirit, for it is in the water that the Spirit takes action (Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14).
You are drinking the wrong water. (John 4:14; 1 Corinthians 12:13) In regard to Romans 6:3-4, as Greek scholar AT Robertson explains - Baptism is the
public proclamation of one's inward spiritual relation to Christ attained before the baptism. See on "Galatians 3:27" where it is like putting on an outward garment or uniform. Into his death (ei ton qanaton autou). So here "unto his death," "in relation to his death," which relation Paul proceeds to
explain by the symbolism of the ordinance. The
picture in baptism points two ways, backwards to Christ's death and burial and to our death to sin, forward to Christ's resurrection from the dead and to our new life pledged by the coming out of the watery grave to walk on the other side of the baptismal grave. There is the further
picture of our own resurrection from the grave.
It is a tragedy that Paul's majestic picture here has been so blurred by controversy that some refuse to see it. It should be said also that
a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.
Romans 6 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org
Before mentioning baptism in chapter 6, Paul had repeatedly emphasized that
faith (not baptism) is the instrumental cause of salvation/justification. (Romans 1:16, 3:22-30; 4:4-6, 13; 5:1) That is when the old man was put to death and united in the likeness of His death, which water baptism
symbolizes and pictures. Righteousness is "imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised up because of our justification." (Romans 4:24,25)
Since believers receive the benefits of Christ’s death and resurrection (justification) and that through faith, believers must be spiritually united to Him (delivered and raised up with Him). If baptism is taken as the instrumental cause, then Paul contradicts what he had established before, namely that
justification is by faith, not baptism. *Hermeneutics.
Paul clearly teaches that what is
signified in baptism (buried and raised with Christ) actually occurs "through faith." Christians are "buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead" (Colossians 2:12). Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about "through faith" - and is properly
symbolized by dipping the new believer in and out of the water.
No, it does not even begin to earn salvation. Our salvation was bought with the price of the life-blood of God (Jesus). Are you saying that you price His blood at the cost of being pushed under water for a couple of seconds? That is a very cheep price you put on His life, to say that it comes even remotely close to earning His gift. That is what I would call poison-coated blasphemy.
Any works which follow salvation through faith that stand between us and receiving eternal life merit salvation by being the basis or means by which we were saved. Either we are saved by faith in Christ alone or else we are saved by faith + works. Either Jesus Christ did it all or else we did some of it. You can't have it both ways. Based on your doctrine, you are "adding" water baptism to Christ's finished work of redemption in order to help Christ save you, which renders Christ an IN-sufficient Savior. Talk about poison-coated blasphemy.
Absolutely correct. But you try to make "faith" a mental only concept.
Wrong, and you try to make faith, works. I teach that faith involves trust and reliance, especially trust and reliance in Jesus Christ alone for salvation and not merely mental assent belief in Christ. The demons believe that Jesus Christ exists, is the Son of God and that His death, burial and resurrection of Christ
"happened." That is
"mental assent" belief,
but the demons
do not trust in Jesus Christ for salvation. Big difference!
According to you, all it requires is an intellectual assent to the truth of the Gospel (which the demons share) and salvation is received. But that is NOT what Scripture says. Faith is not mental only. Faith requires action or it is dead, useless, and ineffective at bringing us salvation from God (James 2:14-26).
Wrong, and once again, the demons believe that the death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened" (mental assent) BUT
they are not trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of their salvation. See the big difference?
Again, you misinterpret Eph 2:8-9. It does not say that there is no action necessary to receive salvation. It says that there is no action that earns salvation, and there is a big difference between the two.
Say what?
What part of
"and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God. Not of works lest any man should boast" do you not understand? You slice, and dice works in your efforts to "shoehorn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works, but the shoe does not fit. What a mess!