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How to be saved and question

Brightfame52

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You’re saved by trusting in Jesus and His gospel, His death, burial, and resurrection. It’s not just knowing the facts but truly trusting that He saves you.
One is saved before they believe and trust, they have to be born again in order to believe the Gospel. See believing and trusting is an evidence of ones saved state. Christ saved them !
 
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Danthemailman

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Dan, if there is no action then "trust/faith" does not really exist.
Action/works which follow saving faith in Christ are the evidence of our "trust/faith" and not the origin of it. Faith is the root of salvation and action/works which follow are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root.

As James says, faith without action/works is dead. And dead faith cannot bring life. Rom 10:9-10 is very clear that without the physical action of confessing Jesus as Lord salvation does not happen. And that is just one example of the actions man must take that result in salvation being received.
In regard to "faith without works is dead" in James 2:20, James does not mean that faith is dead until it produces works and then it becomes a living faith or that works are the source of life. That would be like saying that a tree is dead until it produces fruit and then it becomes a living tree, and the fruit is the source of life in the tree. James is simply saying faith that is not accompanied by evidential works demonstrates that it's dead. If someone merely says-claims they have faith, but lack resulting evidential works, then they demonstrate that they have an empty profession of faith/dead faith and not authentic faith. (James 2:14) James is also not saying that we are saved by works in contradiction to (Romans 3:24-28; 4:2-6; 11:6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..).

Believers have been made alive together with Christ by grace through faith, not works (Ephesians 2:5-9) then created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them. (Ephesians 2:10) Don't put the cart before the horse.

Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. I've heard certain people misinterpret Romans 10:9-10 in such a way that means we can believe unto righteousness today, but are still lost until we confess Christ, which may be next week and then we are finally saved next week, but that is not what Paul is talking about here. Also, someone who is mute (unable to speak) would remain lost according to that erroneous interpretation of Romans 10:9,10 for failing to "verbally confess with their mouth." Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation.

Romans 10:8 - But what does it say? "The word is near you, in your mouth and in your heart" (TOGETHER) that is, the word of faith which we are preaching, (notice the reverse order from verse 9-10) - that if you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved; 10 for with the heart one believes unto righteousness, and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. Confess/believe; believe/confess. 11 For the Scripture says, “Whoever believes on Him will not be put to shame.”

1 Corinthians 12:3 - Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus accursed, and no one can say that Jesus is Lord except BY the Holy Spirit. There is divine influence or direct operation of the Holy Spirit in the heart of a person when confessing Jesus as Lord. This confession is not just a simple acknowledgment that Jesus is the Lord (even the demons believe that), but is a deep, personal conviction from the heart that Jesus is that person's Lord and Savior.

So, simply believing in our head (and not in our heart) that God raised Him from the dead does not result in righteousness and simply giving "lip service" to the words "Jesus is Lord" not by the Holy Spirit is not unto salvation.
 
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Doug Brents

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Action/works which follow saving faith in Christ are the evidence of our "trust/faith" and not the origin of it.
We have been through this all before, and you still are speaking the same old falsehoods.
Actions/works are the soul of faith. Just as the soul gives life to the body, works/actions give life to faith (James 2:26).
Faith is the root of salvation and action/works which follow are the fruit. No fruit at all would demonstrate there is no root.
Not all actions/works are the fruit of salvation. Rom 10:9-10 is very clear that the physical action of confessing Jesus as Lord with the mouth leads to/results in receiving salvation. This is NOT a fruit of salvation, but is an action that brings about the reception of salvation. And there are others besides.
In regard to "faith without works is dead" in James 2:20, James does not mean that faith is dead until it produces works and then it becomes a living faith or that works are the source of life. That would be like saying that a tree is dead until it produces fruit and then it becomes a living tree, and the fruit is the source of life in the tree.
Does a body exist without a soul? Yes. But without a soul that body is dead. It has no life within it. One may say he has faith, but if he produces no action then that faith is dead. And like an aqueduct with a hole in it which cannot bring water to its destination, faith without action cannot bring salvation to the recipient (Eph 2:8-9). Faith is the aqueduct that brings salvation from God to us. And if it is dead it cannot carry God's grace to us.
James is simply saying faith that is not accompanied by evidential works demonstrates that it's dead. If someone merely says-claims they have faith, but lack resulting evidential works, then they demonstrate that they have an empty profession of faith/dead faith and not authentic faith. (James 2:14) James is also not saying that we are saved by works in contradiction to (Romans 3:24-28; 4:2-6; 11:6; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..).
It does not contradict those passages to say that we must take actions in order to receive salvation. Those passages tell us that we cannot EARN salvation through our actions, but they do not say that no action is necessary. If they did, that would contradict Rom 10:9-10, Acts 2:38, 1 Pet 3:21, etc.
Believers have been made alive together with Christ by grace through faith, not works (Ephesians 2:5-9) then created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them. (Ephesians 2:10) Don't put the cart before the horse.
You are putting the cart instead of the horse. Eph 2 does not say that there are no actions necessary to receive salvation. It says that those actions that are necessary do not EARN salvation. This is again expressed in Luke 17:7-10 which tells us that even when we as servants do what our master commands us, we do not deserve praise, or special consideration, or anything else. We are still unprofitable servants who have simply done what our master has commanded. Did dipping in Jordan EARN cleansing for Naaman? No. But he would not have been cleansed if he had not first done what was commanded. The same applies to the Israelites marching round Jericho, the widow giving her last cake to the prophet, the woman gathering all the jars she could find and pouring the oil as the prophet commanded, etc. There is no blessing received without obedience to the commands of God that He says lead to/result in receiving His gift.
Confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together.
Yes, that is true. And they both must come BEFORE salvation is received. They are both actions that man must take that RESULT IN receiving salvation.
I've heard certain people misinterpret Romans 10:9-10 in such a way that means we can believe unto righteousness today, but are still lost until we confess Christ, which may be next week and then we are finally saved next week, but that is not what Paul is talking about here. Also, someone who is mute (unable to speak) would remain lost according to that erroneous interpretation of Romans 10:9,10 for failing to "verbally confess with their mouth." Confession is an expression of faith and not a work for salvation.
That is not what is being said at all. You must believe AND confess Jesus as Lord AND get baptized in order to receive salvation. The point of referencing Rom 10:9-10 is that it clearly puts the physical action of confessing Jesus as Lord "with the mouth" BEFORE salvation is received.
1 Corinthians 12:3 - Therefore I make known to you that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus accursed, and no one can say that Jesus is Lord except BY the Holy Spirit. There is divine influence or direct operation of the Holy Spirit in the heart of a person when confessing Jesus as Lord. This confession is not just a simple acknowledgment that Jesus is the Lord (even the demons believe that), but is a deep, personal conviction from the heart that Jesus is that person's Lord and Savior.

So, simply believing in our head (and not in our heart) that God raised Him from the dead does not result in righteousness and simply giving "lip service" to the words "Jesus is Lord" not by the Holy Spirit is not unto salvation.
The Holy Spirit can, and does, work on people to help them believe and confess Jesus BEFORE THEY ARE SAVED. His actions in our lives do not begin with His indwelling us. He is constantly at work on our lives. A good example of this is Saul. When he encountered Jesus on the road to Damascus he was not saved there on the road. Yes, he believed that it really was the slain Jesus speaking to him. And yes, he accepted that Jesus was God speaking to him from Heaven there on the Road. But three days later when Ananias came to cure his blindness and speak the words of God to him, he was STILL IN SIN (Acts 22:16). If he had been saved on the road, then he would not have still been in sin three days later, but he was. The Holy Spirit was probably working on him over those three days, bringing to him memory all the OT Scriptures that pointed to the Christ and how Jesus fulfilled them all. But Saul was not saved and cleansed of sin until Ananias baptized him and washed away his sins.
 
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Danthemailman

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We have been through this all before, and you still are speaking the same old falsehoods.
Oh, the irony. :(
Actions/works are the soul of faith. Just as the soul gives life to the body, works/actions give life to faith (James 2:26).
To make actions/works the soul of faith is to make actions/works the very essence of faith which erroneously culminates in salvation by works. Works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not the essence of faith and also not the basis or means by which we obtain salvation. In James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converge around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10)
Not all actions/works are the fruit of salvation.
Some actions/works/bad fruit is produced by unbelievers out of moral-self reformation rather than from a regenerate heart. In Matthew 7:17-20, Jesus said - Even so, every good tree (represents believers) bears good fruit, (represents good works) but a bad tree (represents unbelievers) bears bad fruit (bad works that are still stained with sin). A good tree cannot bear bad fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit. Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. Therefore, by their fruits you will know them.
Rom 10:9-10 is very clear that the physical action of confessing Jesus as Lord with the mouth leads to/results in receiving salvation. This is NOT a fruit of salvation but is an action that brings about the reception of salvation. And there are others besides.
Once again, confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. Be sure to go back and thoroughly read post #102 again from and unbiased perspective.
Does a body exist without a soul? Yes. But without a soul that body is dead. It has no life within it. One may say he has faith, but if he produces no action then that faith is dead. And like an aqueduct with a hole in it which cannot bring water to its destination, faith without action cannot bring salvation to the recipient (Eph 2:8-9). Faith is the aqueduct that brings salvation from God to us. And if it is dead it cannot carry God's grace to us.
This remains your Achilles heel. In James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converge around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10) Bodies which don't breathe are dead. In the same way a so-called "faith" (bare profession of faith) whether in the form of religion, intellectual knowledge or moral self-reformation (apart from regeneration) that is not accompanied by good works is not a living faith. It's dead. The spiritual implications are clear. A faith that produces no works demonstrates that it's dead and is not saving faith.
It does not contradict those passages to say that we must take actions in order to receive salvation. Those passages tell us that we cannot EARN salvation through our actions, but they do not say that no action is necessary.
Sugar coated double talk. Actions follow salvation. (Ephesians 2:8-10)
If they did, that would contradict Rom 10:9-10, Acts 2:38, 1 Pet 3:21, etc.
No contradiction here. You need to learn how to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. No scripture is to be interpreted in isolation from the totality of scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa.

I already thoroughly explained Romans 10:9,10 to you. In Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when he uses this phrase, he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).

*Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an ARK for the SAVING of his household).

*The context reveals that only the righteous (Noah and his family) were dry and therefore safe. In contrast, only the wicked in Noah's day came in contract with the water and they all perished.

In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.

*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).

In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.

*So, the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
You are putting the cart instead of the horse. Eph 2 does not say that there are no actions necessary to receive salvation. It says that those actions that are necessary do not EARN salvation.
More sugar-coated double talk. If those actions/works which follow saving faith in Christ are necessary for salvation, then salvation would be earned (at least in part) and that really tickles the ears and feeds the pride of man. Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption alone and not based on the merits of our works.
This is again expressed in Luke 17:7-10 which tells us that even when we as servants do what our master commands us, we do not deserve praise, or special consideration, or anything else. We are still unprofitable servants who have simply done what our master has commanded.
This humble attitude has nothing to do with receiving salvation based on unmerited works.
Did dipping in Jordan EARN cleansing for Naaman? No. But he would not have been cleansed if he had not first done what was commanded. The same applies to the Israelites marching round Jericho, the widow giving her last cake to the prophet, the woman gathering all the jars she could find and pouring the oil as the prophet commanded, etc. There is no blessing received without obedience to the commands of God that He says lead to/result in receiving His gift.
These were blessings received here and not the gift of eternal life, which is only received by grace through faith. (Ephesians 2:8,9)
Yes, that is true. And they both must come BEFORE salvation is received. They are both actions that man must take that RESULT IN receiving salvation.
Your misunderstanding culminates in salvation by works.
That is not what is being said at all. You must believe AND confess Jesus as Lord AND get baptized in order to receive salvation. The point of referencing Rom 10:9-10 is that it clearly puts the physical action of confessing Jesus as Lord "with the mouth" BEFORE salvation is received.
Your eisegesis is the result of bad semantics and flawed hermeneutics. Go back and thoroughly read post #102 again. Water baptism "follows" believing in Jesus unto salvation. (Acts 10:43-47)
The Holy Spirit can, and does, work on people to help them believe and confess Jesus BEFORE THEY ARE SAVED. His actions in our lives do not begin with His indwelling us. He is constantly at work on our lives. A good example of this is Saul. When he encountered Jesus on the road to Damascus he was not saved there on the road. Yes, he believed that it really was the slain Jesus speaking to him. And yes, he accepted that Jesus was God speaking to him from Heaven there on the Road. But three days later when Ananias came to cure his blindness and speak the words of God to him, he was STILL IN SIN (Acts 22:16). If he had been saved on the road, then he would not have still been in sin three days later, but he was. The Holy Spirit was probably working on him over those three days, bringing to him memory all the OT Scriptures that pointed to the Christ and how Jesus fulfilled them all. But Saul was not saved and cleansed of sin until Ananias baptized him and washed away his sins.
Excellent article on Acts 22:16 - Acts 22:16--Baptism Essential for Salvation? :oldthumbsup:
 
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Guojing

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The point of this discussion was to address the inaccurate position that obedience to water baptism was only required of those of the Jewish nation responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus. (your post 65) Scripture reveals Jews were not solely responsible for what took place. (Acts 4:27-28) And the scripture you referenced (Matthew 27:25) records the words spoken that brought a curse upon they and their offspring.

Furthermore, the word of God itself confirms everyone regardless of nationality must obey the command and be water baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sin. (Acts 2:4-41, 8:12-18, 9:17-18, 10:43-48, 19:1-7, 22:16) Jesus prophesied concerning this in Luke 24:47.

So do you at least agree with my point "no one who is alive today can commit the sin committed by National Israel in Matthew 27:25, Acts 3:13-17"

I didn't see a yes or no in your reply.

Let me ask another way "Did you reject the Messiah that was promised to you?", bearing in mind Ephesians 2:11-12, Matthew 1:21, Matthew 10:5, Luke 1:67-75, Romans 15:8 etc)
 
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Doug Brents

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Oh, the irony. :(
No irony, just truth.
To make actions/works the soul of faith is to make actions/works the very essence of faith which erroneously culminates in salvation by works.
Only in your mind. Works do not earn salvation, but they are required to receive it.
Works are the fruit, by product and demonstrative evidence of faith, but not the essence of faith and also not the basis or means by which we obtain salvation.
Not all works are fruit or by product of faith; many are, but not all. There are some that are the instigator of it.
In James 2:26, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converge around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10)
No, Dan, it does not revolve around the "modes of operation". When God created man, the body He fashioned from the dirt was without life. And God breathed into that body the "breath of life" (or a soul), and that body became a living being. Just the same, you may say you have faith, but that is an empty shell until it has the soul of faith (works/actions) that give it life.
Some actions/works/bad fruit is produced by unbelievers out of moral-self reformation rather than from a regenerate heart. In Matthew 7:17-20, Jesus said - Even so, every good tree (represents believers) bears good fruit, (represents good works) but a bad tree (represents unbelievers) bears bad fruit (bad works that are still stained with sin). A good tree cannot bear bad fruit, nor can a bad tree bear good fruit. Every tree that does not bear good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire. Therefore, by their fruits you will know them.
This is completely true, and completely off subject. It is simply a strawman that has nothing to do with the topic at hand. As I said, and Scripture makes clear, not all works of faith are the fruit of salvation. There are three actions that we must take that lead to/result in receiving salvation.
Once again, confessing with our mouth that Jesus is Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. Be sure to go back and thoroughly read post #102 again from and unbiased perspective.
Another strawman. Of course they should come together chronologically together. But the point is that they BOTH MUST precede the reception of salvation, because confession RESULTS IN receiving salvation.
Sugar coated double talk. Actions follow salvation. (Ephesians 2:8-10)
Not all action does, Dan. Repentance (Acts 3:19), confession of Jesus as Lord (Rom 10:9-10), and baptism (whole list of verses already posted) all must come before salvation is received, because all of them LEAD TO/RESULT IN receiving salvation according to Scripture.
No contradiction here. You need to learn how to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. No scripture is to be interpreted in isolation from the totality of scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa.
I completely agree. But the passages that tell us that repentance, confession, and baptism are essential to receive salvation are not obscure, in isolation, or unclear. On the contrary, they are very specific that salvation results from doing these actions. It is the passages that only mention "belief" or "faith" that are lacking detail.
I already thoroughly explained Romans 10:9,10 to you.
And you completely ignore the fact that both belief AND confession of Jesus are required BEFORE salvation is received. Yes, they are chronologically together BEFORE salvation, because they both result in salvation being received. This makes them both prerequisites for receiving God's gift of salvation. You ignore this fact because it does not fit with your preconception of how salvation is received.
In Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when he uses this phrase, he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).
You are completely correct, but this all still happens DURING the event of water baptism. Yes, it is a completely spiritual cleansing. But it still happens when one is plunged beneath the water in baptism.
*Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an ARK for the SAVING of his household).

*The context reveals that only the righteous (Noah and his family) were dry and therefore safe. In contrast, only the wicked in Noah's day came in contract with the water and they all perished.
And it is just the opposite with baptism. Only the ones who are baptized will be saved through their faith.
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first.
Grammatically, in both Greek and in English, it is impossible to separate "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized" from each other and their united connection to "for the remission of sins". Both of those phrases relate to "for the remission of sins" in exactly the same way. There is nothing there that would suggest that "you all repent" in order to receive forgiveness, but then "each one of you be baptized" because you have already been forgiven. Any Greek or English teacher would beat you over the head for even suggesting that kind of stupidity. Both "repent" and "be baptized" are "in order to receive forgiveness of sins".
Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
There is no parenthesis, not even one suggested or hinted at.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 - the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
The Gentiles in Acts 10 received the miraculous empowerment of the Spirit, just as the Jews did on Pentecost. The Jews already had the indwelling of the Spirit (John 20:22). The only thing they received on Pentecost was miraculous empowerment (tongues and praise) of the Spirit after they were saved. This is the same thing that the Gentiles received (tongues and praise) before they were saved. The phrase "received the Holy Spirit" most often refers to miraculous empowerment, not the indwelling of the Spirit.
In Acts 10:43 we read ..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 - when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 - Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
In Acts 16:31, Paul told them to believe in Jesus, and then he went on to teach them about Jesus (including about the necessity of water baptism) as it is recorded in Acts 16:32.
*So, the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony*
No, that is very much discord in Scripture. You are explaining away, ignoring, or reinterpreting many Scriptures in order to justify your "perfect harmony", but it just doesn't work. There is only one way to enter into the Kingdom of God, and that is through both the Spirit AND water (John 3:5). You want to accept the Spirit but ignore the water. But the water is just as essential as the Spirit, for it is in the water that the Spirit takes action (Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14).
More sugar-coated double talk. If those actions/works which follow saving faith in Christ are necessary for salvation, then salvation would be earned (at least in part) and that really tickles the ears and feeds the pride of man.
No, it does not even begin to earn salvation. Our salvation was bought with the price of the life-blood of God (Jesus). Are you saying that you price His blood at the cost of being pushed under water for a couple of seconds? That is a very cheep price you put on His life, to say that it comes even remotely close to earning His gift. That is what I would call poison-coated blasphemy.
Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption alone and not based on the merits of our works.
Absolutely correct. But you try to make "faith" a mental only concept. According to you, all it requires is an intellectual assent to the truth of the Gospel (which the demons share) and salvation is received. But that is NOT what Scripture says. Faith is not mental only. Faith requires action or it is dead, useless, and ineffective at bringing us salvation from God (James 2:14-26).
These were blessings received here and not the gift of eternal life, which is only received by grace through faith. (Ephesians 2:8,9)
Again, you misinterpret Eph 2:8-9. It does not say that there is no action necessary to receive salvation. It says that there is no action that earns salvation, and there is a big difference between the two.
 
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WatchmanofGod

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To go to Heaven and be saved(eternal life), believe on Jesus Christ(who is God and Savior). Believe, trust and have faith in Jesus alone that he saved you. Also to be saved, believe, trust and have faith in the gospel that Jesus died for our sins, was buried and rose again. The gospel is according to the scriptures for our justification of our sins.

Is one saved when they believe on Jesus(believe, trust and have faith that Jesus saved you) or the gospel(1 Corinthians 15:1-4)? Or does one need to believe both things to be saved? At least some people believe that the gospel(including that Jesus died for our sins) happened but may not believe that it saves.

Thank you.
1 John 5:11-13

“And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life. These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.”

This assures believers that they already have eternal life through faith in Jesus.
 
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Guojing

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1 John 5:11-13

“And this is the record, that God hath given to us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. He that hath the Son hath life; and he that hath not the Son of God hath not life. These things have I written unto you that believe on the name of the Son of God; that ye may know that ye have eternal life, and that ye may believe on the name of the Son of God.”

This assures believers that they already have eternal life through faith in Jesus.

If you think that was what John meant, then why did he mention

1 John 3:
6 Whosoever abideth in him sinneth not: whosoever sinneth hath not seen him, neither known him.

7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.

15 Whosoever hateth his brother is a murderer: and ye know that no murderer hath eternal life abiding in him.
 
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Danthemailman

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Doug Brents said: No irony, just truth.
Salvation by faith + works is not the truth no matter how much you try to sugar coat it.
Only in your mind. Works do not earn salvation, but they are required to receive it.
OXYMORON.
Not all works are fruit or by product of faith; many are, but not all. There are some that are the instigator of it.
o_O You turn everything into works.
No, Dan, it does not revolve around the "modes of operation".
Yes, it does.
When God created man, the body He fashioned from the dirt was without life. And God breathed into that body the "breath of life" (or a soul), and that body became a living being. Just the same, you may say you have faith, but that is an empty shell until it has the soul of faith (works/actions) that give it life.
You continue to miss the point that James is making. Again, the comparison of the human spirit and faith converge around their modes of operation. The spirit (Greek pneuma) may also be translated "breath." As a breathless body exhibits no indication of life, so fruitless faith exhibits no indication of life. The source of the life in faith is not works; rather, life in faith is the source of works. (Ephesians 2:5-10) According to your logic, fruit grows on a dead tree in order to give the tree life. You have it backwards. The source of life flows through the root of the tree and produces fruit just as the source of life in faith produces works. You have the tail wagging the dog. The cart before the horse.
This is completely true, and completely off subject. It is simply a strawman that has nothing to do with the topic at hand. As I said, and Scripture makes clear, not all works of faith are the fruit of salvation. There are three actions that we must take that lead to/result in receiving salvation.
It was not off topic, or a strawman and you completely missed another great point.
Another strawman. Of course they should come together chronologically together. But the point is that they BOTH MUST precede the reception of salvation, because confession RESULTS IN receiving salvation.
So, you admit they are chronologically together? Progress! :) Remember, the word of faith is in our mouth and in our heart TOGETHER. (Romans 10:8) That is the key to understanding Romans 10:9,10. According to your 4-step plan of salvation, water baptism comes AFTER confession and you teach that we are not saved until after baptism, which negates Romans 10:9,10.
Not all action does, Dan. Repentance (Acts 3:19), confession of Jesus as Lord (Rom 10:9-10), and baptism (whole list of verses already posted) all must come before salvation is received, because all of them LEAD TO/RESULT IN receiving salvation according to Scripture.
Repentance is a change of mind and the new direction of that change of mind is faith in Jesus Christ for salvation. (Acts 20:21) Two sides to the same coin. Confession of Jesus as Lord and believing in our heart that God raised Him from the dead are not two separate steps to salvation but are chronologically together. (Romans 10:8-10) Water baptism "follows" salvation through belief/faith. (Acts 10:43-47)
I completely agree. But the passages that tell us that repentance, confession, and baptism are essential to receive salvation are not obscure, in isolation, or unclear. On the contrary, they are very specific that salvation results from doing these actions. It is the passages that only mention "belief" or "faith" that are lacking detail.
Your continued confusion in regard to repentance, confession and baptism is the result of bad semantics and flawed hermeneutics.
And you completely ignore the fact that both belief AND confession of Jesus are required BEFORE salvation is received. Yes, they are chronologically together BEFORE salvation, because they both result in salvation being received.
I did not ignore the truth found in Romans 10:8-10 at all.
This makes them both prerequisites for receiving God's gift of salvation. You ignore this fact because it does not fit with your preconception of how salvation is received.
Again, not two separate steps to salvation but chronologically together. You ignore the truth found in Romans 10:8-10 and end up turning confession into a work for salvation separate from believing unto righteousness, (see Romans 4:5-6) which fits your preconceived beliefs of how salvation is received. Church indoctrination may play a major role in that.
You are completely correct, but this all still happens DURING the event of water baptism. Yes, it is a completely spiritual cleansing. But it still happens when one is plunged beneath the water in baptism.
False. Spiritual cleansing is signified but not procured in water baptism.
And it is just the opposite with baptism. Only the ones who are baptized will be saved through their faith.
False. That's not saved through faith but saved through faith + baptism. Those who trust in works for salvation have not placed their faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation.
Grammatically, in both Greek and in English, it is impossible to separate "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized" from each other and their united connection to "for the remission of sins". Both of those phrases relate to "for the remission of sins" in exactly the same way. There is nothing there that would suggest that "you all repent" in order to receive forgiveness, but then "each one of you be baptized" because you have already been forgiven. Any Greek or English teacher would beat you over the head for even suggesting that kind of stupidity. Both "repent" and "be baptized" are "in order to receive forgiveness of sins".
Stupidity? Please calm down and don't make this personal. I often hear water-salvationists make your same argument about grammar in regard to their pet verse, Acts 2:38. Let's see what Greek grammarian scholars think about it.

Greek scholar A. T. Robertson comments on Acts 2:38 - he shows how the grammar of this verse can be used to support more than one interpretation of this text. He then reaches this conclusion: "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received."

Elsewhere, AT Robertson said - Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve.

Acts 2:38 Commentary - Robertson's Word Pictures of the New Testament

Greek scholar E Calvin Beisner said something similar - In short, the most precise English translation of the relevant clauses, arranging them to reflect the switches in person and number of the verbs, would be, “You (plural) repent for the forgiveness of your (plural) sins, and let each one (singular) of you be baptized (singular)….” Or, to adopt our Southern dialect again, “Y’all repent for the forgiveness of y’all’s sins, and let each one of you be baptized….”

When I showed this translation to the late Julius Mantey, one of the foremost Greek grammarians of the twentieth century and co-author of A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament (originally published in 1927), he approved and even signed his name next to it in the margin of my Greek New Testament. These arguments, lexical and grammatical, stand independently. Even if one rejects both lexical meanings of for, he still must face the grammatical argument, and even if he rejects the grammatical conclusion, he still must face the lexical argument. Does Acts 2:38 prove baptismal remission? No, it doesn’t even support it as part of a cumulative case. — E. Calvin Beisner

http://www.equip.org/PDF/JAA238.pdf

Greek scholar Daniel Wallace explains in Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: It is possible that to a first-century Jewish audience (as well as to Peter), the idea of baptism might incorporate both the spiritual reality and the physical symbol (although only the reality remits sins). In other words, when one spoke of baptism, he usually meant both ideas—the reality and the ritual. Peter is shown to make the strong connection between these two in chapters 10 and 11. In 11:15-16 he recounts the conversion of Cornelius and friends, pointing out that at the point of their conversion they were baptized by the Holy Spirit. After he had seen this, he declared, “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized who have received the Holy Spirit…” (10:47). The point seems to be that if they have had the internal testimony of the Holy Spirit via spiritual baptism, there ought to be a public testimony/acknowledgment via water baptism as well. This may not only explain Acts 2:38 (that Peter spoke of both reality and picture, though only the reality removes sins), but also why the NT speaks of only baptized believers (as far as we can tell): Water baptism is not a cause of salvation, but a picture; and as such it serves both as a public acknowledgment (by those present) and a public confession (by the convert) that one has been Spirit baptized.

Oneness Pentecostals believe the work of Baptism saves

CONTINUED..
 
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Danthemailman

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Doug Brents said: There is no parenthesis, not even one suggested or hinted at.
I already proved otherwise in post #104. So once again, the only logical conclusion when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:7-9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony* :oldthumbsup:
The Gentiles in Acts 10 received the miraculous empowerment of the Spirit, just as the Jews did on Pentecost. The Jews already had the indwelling of the Spirit (John 20:22). The only thing they received on Pentecost was miraculous empowerment (tongues and praise) of the Spirit after they were saved. This is the same thing that the Gentiles received (tongues and praise) before they were saved. The phrase "received the Holy Spirit" most often refers to miraculous empowerment, not the indwelling of the Spirit.
Absolutely false. You blatantly deny the truth that these Gentiles received the gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 10:45, also confirmed in Acts 11:17,18 and Acts 15:7-9. In addition to receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit, they also received the spiritual gift of tongues which confirmed to the Jews that God has accepted these Gentiles as well. To deny this crystal-clear truth is to be dishonest.
In Acts 16:31, Paul told them to believe in Jesus, and then he went on to teach them about Jesus (including about the necessity of water baptism) as it is recorded in Acts 16:32.
Water baptism "followed" believing on the Lord Jesus Christ and being saved. If water baptism was necessary for salvation, then Paul would have added it to believing on the Lord Jesus Christ in Acts 16:31 and numerous other passages of scripture which only mention belief/faith in connection with receiving salvation. (John 3:15,16,18; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:24-28; 4:5-6; 5:1; Ephesians 2:8 etc..).
No, that is very much discord in Scripture. You are explaining away, ignoring, or reinterpreting many Scriptures in order to justify your "perfect harmony", but it just doesn't work.
You are the master of irony.
There is only one way to enter into the Kingdom of God, and that is through both the Spirit AND water (John 3:5). You want to accept the Spirit but ignore the water.
I don't ignore the water at all and in John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit. He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit and He also did not say unless one is water baptized, he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14 and He connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water (which reaches the heart) and spiritual cleansing.

If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. Jesus still did not mention baptism in (John 3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) and believing is not baptism and believing "precedes" baptism and we are saved through believing/placing faith in Christ alone for salvation. It's just that simple.

Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5) So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.
But the water is just as essential as the Spirit, for it is in the water that the Spirit takes action (Rom 6:1-7, Col 2:11-14).
You are drinking the wrong water. (John 4:14; 1 Corinthians 12:13) In regard to Romans 6:3-4, as Greek scholar AT Robertson explains - Baptism is the public proclamation of one's inward spiritual relation to Christ attained before the baptism. See on "Galatians 3:27" where it is like putting on an outward garment or uniform. Into his death (ei ton qanaton autou). So here "unto his death," "in relation to his death," which relation Paul proceeds to explain by the symbolism of the ordinance. The picture in baptism points two ways, backwards to Christ's death and burial and to our death to sin, forward to Christ's resurrection from the dead and to our new life pledged by the coming out of the watery grave to walk on the other side of the baptismal grave. There is the further picture of our own resurrection from the grave. It is a tragedy that Paul's majestic picture here has been so blurred by controversy that some refuse to see it. It should be said also that a symbol is not the reality, but the picture of the reality.

Romans 6 - Robertson's Word Pictures in the New Testament - Bible Commentaries - StudyLight.org

Before mentioning baptism in chapter 6, Paul had repeatedly emphasized that faith (not baptism) is the instrumental cause of salvation/justification. (Romans 1:16, 3:22-30; 4:4-6, 13; 5:1) That is when the old man was put to death and united in the likeness of His death, which water baptism symbolizes and pictures. Righteousness is "imputed to us who believe in Him who raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead, who was delivered up because of our offenses, and was raised up because of our justification." (Romans 4:24,25)

Since believers receive the benefits of Christ’s death and resurrection (justification) and that through faith, believers must be spiritually united to Him (delivered and raised up with Him). If baptism is taken as the instrumental cause, then Paul contradicts what he had established before, namely that justification is by faith, not baptism. *Hermeneutics.

Paul clearly teaches that what is signified in baptism (buried and raised with Christ) actually occurs "through faith." Christians are "buried with Him in baptism, in which you also were raised with Him through faith in the working of God, who raised Him from the dead" (Colossians 2:12). Justification on account of union in Christ's death, burial and resurrection is brought about "through faith" - and is properly symbolized by dipping the new believer in and out of the water.
No, it does not even begin to earn salvation. Our salvation was bought with the price of the life-blood of God (Jesus). Are you saying that you price His blood at the cost of being pushed under water for a couple of seconds? That is a very cheep price you put on His life, to say that it comes even remotely close to earning His gift. That is what I would call poison-coated blasphemy.
Any works which follow salvation through faith that stand between us and receiving eternal life merit salvation by being the basis or means by which we were saved. Either we are saved by faith in Christ alone or else we are saved by faith + works. Either Jesus Christ did it all or else we did some of it. You can't have it both ways. Based on your doctrine, you are "adding" water baptism to Christ's finished work of redemption in order to help Christ save you, which renders Christ an IN-sufficient Savior. Talk about poison-coated blasphemy.
Absolutely correct. But you try to make "faith" a mental only concept.
Wrong, and you try to make faith, works. I teach that faith involves trust and reliance, especially trust and reliance in Jesus Christ alone for salvation and not merely mental assent belief in Christ. The demons believe that Jesus Christ exists, is the Son of God and that His death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened." That is "mental assent" belief, but the demons do not trust in Jesus Christ for salvation. Big difference!
According to you, all it requires is an intellectual assent to the truth of the Gospel (which the demons share) and salvation is received. But that is NOT what Scripture says. Faith is not mental only. Faith requires action or it is dead, useless, and ineffective at bringing us salvation from God (James 2:14-26).
Wrong, and once again, the demons believe that the death, burial and resurrection of Christ "happened" (mental assent) BUT they are not trusting in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of their salvation. See the big difference? ;)
Again, you misinterpret Eph 2:8-9. It does not say that there is no action necessary to receive salvation. It says that there is no action that earns salvation, and there is a big difference between the two.
Say what? o_O What part of "and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God. Not of works lest any man should boast" do you not understand? You slice, and dice works in your efforts to "shoehorn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works, but the shoe does not fit. What a mess!
 
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