Sexual misconduct is any activity that has as its main purpose personal sexual gratification rather than selfless love. Is that specific enough for your taste? Does the following passage that I am throwing around have anything to do with sexual misconduct?
Matthew 5:27-28
New International Version (NIV)
27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[
a] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart."
Perhaps adultery has an archaic meaning that makes the word only apply to idol worshipping? So only looking at a temple prostitute lustfully causes one to commit adultery in one's heart? Perhaps the Elizibethans changed the meaning while we were not looking? Can we get a ruling from Jesus to pin Him down on the meaning of the word as he hasn't stipulated that it must be a married man that does this in order for his words to apply? Shouldn't a single man be able to look lustfully on a single woman and not commit adultery in his heart as adultery only applies when one person involved is already married? Or could we possibly imagine that perhaps Jesus really did mean that Love your neighbor as yourself sums up the law for us in our relations with each other and "doing it because it feels so good that it must be right" is really a sin since it involves
using another human being as a means to satisfy one's own need for sexual gratification.