Again, Incorrect.
Israelites HAD TO be circumcised BEFORE they were admitted as a party to the covenant, PERIOD.
"He who is born in your house...must be circumcised. My covenant will be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. The uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin, that soul shall be cut off from his people. He has broken my covenant." (Gen 17:13-14)
Unless you can show where any uncircumcised born male Israelite was included as a party to the covenant in absence of His circumcision, please amend your assertion to fit the scripture.
And when they were "patriated", (again, THROUGH THE PATRIATION OF CIRCUMCISION and OBEDIENCE, JUST LIKE ANY BORN ISRAELITE HAD TO BE PATRIATED) scripture confirms that their "party to the covenant" was
exactly as they were born Israelites:
Exodus 12
48 And when a
stranger shall sojourn with thee, and will keep the passover to the Lord,
let all his males be circumcised, and then let him come near and keep it; and
he shall be as one that is born in the land: for no uncircumcised person shall eat thereof.
Apparently, we have to round that circuit again and again, as many times as it takes, until you affirm what the Bible says about it.
What part of:
"He who is born in your house...must be circumcised. My covenant will be in your flesh for an everlasting covenant. The uncircumcised male who is not circumcised in the flesh of his foreskin, that soul shall be cut off from his people. He has broken my covenant." (Gen 17:13-14)
Makes you think Israelites, unlike Gentiles, did NOT have to "comply with the requirements" to be a party to the covenant?