Ok, I have been studying the pre-tribulation rapture lately and I have come across some good reasons to believe it (maybe). However, what does Jesus mean by the "last day" in the following verse's?
John 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
John 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
I know that there will be a resurrection at the rapture when the "dead in Christ" are raised, but if this occurs at the "last day", wouldn't that mean that the rapture occurs after the tribulation?
John 6:39 And this is the Father's will which hath sent me, that of all which he hath given me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up again at the last day.
John 6:40 And this is the will of him that sent me, that every one which seeth the Son, and believeth on him, may have everlasting life: and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:44 No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:54 Whoso eateth my flesh, and drinketh my blood, hath eternal life; and I will raise him up at the last day.
I know that there will be a resurrection at the rapture when the "dead in Christ" are raised, but if this occurs at the "last day", wouldn't that mean that the rapture occurs after the tribulation?