Hiya. Here is my long answer, long time coming.
First, the amendent refers to "persons", not humans.
Please point out any non-human persons.
And second, all persons are treated equally under the law here, no person is allowed to use another person's body or its organs and processes without consent.
Children requiring the use of their parents body to help them reach the next stage of independence and maturity is a natural phenomonon in keeping with both the women’s and child’s biology and in keeping with biological parents obligation to keep their biological child in a safe and appropriate environment. Biological children do not need their biological parents consent to be dependant upon them because the child’s dependance and use of parents body has been instigated by their parents actions which is beyond their control.
Their sexual activity has not concieved a stranger in need but their biological child-the only kind of human being who they have that kind of responsibility too.
This is not a case of trying to reverse a sickness or injury of a stranger, but biological parents having a responsibility to provide a suitable environment to add to the age, welfare, independence of their son or daughter. There is not an environment more suitable to a child that age than the womb. This is what we enforce upon biological parents anyway.
Which leads me onto my next point.
It isn't. But legally, parental responsibilities do not begin until birth. It isn't like that at all. Legally, parental obligations begin at birth, not before.
But that is what you are saying. When people say ‘A women has a right to expel an unwanted fetus from the womb.’ If you cut down the rehtoric, it means ‘a biological human parent has a right to expel it’s biological offspring in its fetal stage of development from the only place that it suitable and safe and natural for that child to mature in.’ If we are both agreeing that child neglect is wrong, and I have no doubts on your sincerity, why do you say that for a period of time it is morally neutral if parents do just that?
By making it legal for the child to not be cared for by its biological parents until a certain point in the child’s development, you are making child neglect/abuse for a certain window of time to be a choice that parents can make. In order for child abuse to be such a definete wrong to make it illegal later on,
whatever the circumstances, parental responsibilities must tied up and enforced with the child existing and being in need- this is from conception, not from birth.
Why should parental obligations not legally exist before birth? Is neglecting your child and caring for your child carrying the exact moral weight?
The child is not an adult. Child neglect is never appropriate response to the child from the parents no matter what the age or level of development of the child. Also, having difficulty in understanding how parental obligations are enforced upon people towards a part of their own body which has now just come outside of the body-if this is what birth actually is. Parental obligations assume that the thing that the obligations towards is their biological child, not an organ, or amputated tissue.
You haven’t made child neglect less horrible in order for it to be more legal. You’ve just made it easier for the aggressors, not the victim. Why is this a good thing?
I'm not sure why birth isn't a "fixed enough" point for you, but legally, it is the point where a new person comes into existence, separate from its mother. Granted, some legal protection comes at fetal viability, but birth is the point where a fetus becomes an individual, so it's a significant enough point for the law to differentiate a fetus from its mother.
Whoa whoa whoa, you’re saying too opposing things are true at the same time. You say, at birth is the first point in which there is an individual, but before birth there is some legal protection. How so? You can’t grant rights towards an individual that you won’t recognise as existing in the first place. If there is something that qualifies for legal protection-and you’re not refering to the pregnant women-that something has to be a seperate individual from the pregnant women that you’re not refering too. You don’t grant legal rights towards pieces of humans but humans themselves-so here you are claiming that before birth no individual or new human being exists but here is the govern,ment claiming that here is something that needs legal protection and its other than the women. Seems to be a seperate individual before birth too.
Okay, well, I’ll just turn what you said on its head

I’m not sure why conception isn’t a fixed enough point for you, but scientifically, its the point where a new homo sapiens comes into existence, separate from its mother.
Birth is not a fixed enough point for me because birth describes a process that moves what is that then matured individual from an environment that is not appropriate for its continuing development into an environment that now is. Humans who exist but the government refuses to recognise them as existing are victims of injustice
I guess its because I am having trouble understanding how something can go from something being classed as body part to an individual human just by going through a hole outside of the body. Individuality cannot be gained by pulling out what its a part of. My hair falls out, I’m still not a parent. I menustrate, I’m still not a parent. I have four teeth pulled, I don’t have four children. My mother had her kidney removed, I didn’t gain a sibling. If you are not an individual you can’t gain individuality by going through a hole. You have to be a child before you go through the hole to come out as a child. As you agreed with later on that nothing other than a child exists in a pregnant women’s womb, I’m finding it difficult to understand how a child can exist but not be a separate being from its mother. Children and mothers are separate members of the same species. My point being, is that if a fetus/zygote/embryo has a mother that fact alone is enough to differentiate them from each other because in order to have a parent-offspring relationship there needs to be two separate beings. The child can definetely grow into independence from it’s mother, and this continues after birth, but it cannot grow into being someone’s offspring from a condition of ‘being without a parent’.
This is what it looks like to me that you are arguing- Beings without a nature for rationality, independance, sentience can have those qualities bestowed upon them by going through a hole. A process which does not affect the non-rational etc nature but only the environment that the being now continues to mature in. If you feed and shelter a non-sentient being, you are not going to end up with that being that expresses independance and sentience if the right care is allowed to happen. Being fed and sheltered and being pushed through a hole adds ZERO to a capacity towards independance, if independance and sentience was not already part of the nature of that being at the very start of its maturation process (conception). Immature non-sentient non-independant creatures only mature into mature non-sentient non-independant creatures. The reason why the conceptus doesn’t show a sign of capacity to function independantly or rationally is a question of development level, not a question of not being that type of being at all.
If you want to counter that argument with the argument that you never said that this was a non-sentient being only a body part with a capacity, a potential towards sentience, then lets explore that. You would then go back over that premise with the idea that the something that you identify as a body part also has the capacity/any sort of inclination towards a state of viability (being able to live as an individual-not a body part-seperate from the body) Would it make sense for a body part to ever reach something like viability-if the body part stops functioning as a part of a whole and starts functioning as a seperate being, the body that it was a part of would fail.
You'd have to ask the woman who made the decision to have an abortion. It's her decision to make, not the government's.
No, wait a second. If the government endows a right to abort, in order for women to get access to abortion all women need to get to an age where she is capable of reproducing. In order to do that, she has to go through the zygotic, fetal, infant, toddler, child, adolescent stages of development. How can the government not interfere if the humans they are supposed to be granting access to abortion, amongst other things, are being killed before they reach an age where abortion is needed.
Granting personhood to a human is not a personal decision-it’s a constitutional one that the government recognises equally to all human individuals. Thats what you agree is just when you agree that at birth, the government should interfere with all types of harm done against that individual.
No, I'm not. There is no constitutional "inherent right" to kill anyone. The Constitution does not allow the government to override a woman's right to have an abortion, but that's as far as it goes.
So if theres not inherent right to kill anyone (constitutional) surely this compels the governmental to overide a women’s access to a procedure to have her child killed without being accused that blocking that proccedure is unconstituitional? The law is to reinforce the constitution, and, as you said, there is NO inherent right to kill, then the law is unjust to go against the ideas expressed in the constitution and offer legal protection and power to the aggressors of the killing, rather than the victims that are killed.
more coming!