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So now you are appealing to tradition against what the bible says? Christians have been saying things for 2,000 years, but that does not make the things true. Let God be true, and every man be a liar. Jesus was baptized as an example for us to follow. He did not need to be baptized for any other reason.
So, by your standards, the Bible must explicitly state after every one of Jesus's actions that the action was an example for us to follow. If that does not occur, then the action was not an example for us to follow.
This type of reactionary expression has no place in a debate. It does not further your argument, nor does it refute my position.
That would then mean the disciples were baptizing people without Christ commanding them. I find this problematic and very unlikely. Furthermore, it would draw into question whether John was of God or not if he were baptizing without God commanding him to do so.
But do you not see that in turning over the tables, Jesus' example to us was a righteous anger at the misrepresentation of His Father and ours to those seeking Him? There are many tables we must overturn if we follow Christ. In turning over the tables, we have an example of fearless action in doing what is right regardless of the consequences for us. We have the example of confronting evil head-on in the power of God. In the example of placing clay on the blind man's eyes, we have the example of caring for those around us who are suffering and doing what we can to relieve such suffering. For the people of Christ's Day, it was also an example of loving people we previously judged as being under God's condemnation, for they believed that such physical ailments were punishments from God.
This statement assumes too much. It is a conclusion drawn by your imagination and colored with your bias, an opinion masquerading as a fact.
I think you heavily weighted down the maturity level.
There is ONE AND ONLY ONE command in the whole of the NT to follow Jesus' example....
We are to follow in all His steps, including avoiding bigotry. We should, as He did, have a heart for souls rather than criticizing their faith. And certainly, His baptism was one of His earlier steps.
This is not an argument at all. It has no place in a civil theological debate.
There does the Bible say Jesus is our example in Baptism? Does this mean we have to wait to 30 years of age to get baptized? Does this mean right after baptism we go into a desert and not eat or drink for 30 days?
This is a transgression of the Fifth Commandment..."Everyone who hates his brother is a murderer" I John 3:15. No where in Scripture does Scripture state avoiding bigotry is FOLLOWING JESUS' EXAMPLE. It is following the teaching of Scripture.
In our Lord's last words on earth Jesus tells his disciples to "teach them to observe all that I commanded you." Matthew 28:20. We are to observe Christ's teaching and only follow Jesus' example where specifically stated in Scripture. (I Peter 2:21ff)
We should have the faith of Jesus.
We should be humble like Jesus was.
Footwear has no salvific significance.
Peter is not Jesus, and Peter did not follow Jesus' example when he committed this act.
No, you can't let go fo the dogma your teachers have given you.
Jesus was not a bigot. He was lowly of heart. He was meek. These are the examples he left us. The constant putdown of fellow Christians is a form of bigotry.
You should not depend on a single passage in forming a doctrine. Consider 1 John 2:6 He who says he abides in Him ought himself also to walk just as He walked. Or Matthew 16:24 Then Jesus said to His disciples, "If anyone desires to come after Me, let him deny himself, and take up his cross, and follow Me.
Not so. Jesus prophesied concerning when Christian Baptism would officially begin and afterward spread to all nations:
Scripture reveals water baptism was consistently administered in the NAME of Jesus Christ in obedience to Jesus' command given in Matthew 28:19.
Not by faith, but THROUGH faith.
This is a partial answer, but it is not complete. What must I do to be saved?
Where is the command for a person to be chrismated found in Scripture?
You don't have real faith if you don't have works with it. It is dead and meaningless (James 2:14-26). The works must be there from the beginning or you don't really have faith at all.
Having the hands of the apostles laid on them and receiving the Holy Spirit seems a long way from Chrismation, which I found described on an Orthodox website like this:
Ahh, I see. Taking Scripture out of context and creating a man made idea out of a Scriptural event.
What you're telling me is contrary to what is written. To borrow a term, it isn't "biblical". Then the rest is merely your opinion. And you are certainly entitled to your opinion, but you are not entitled to create or change Christian doctrine.
That is all extra-Biblical. It is not a commandment, nor is it demonstrated in Scripture in that manner (neither the anointing of the building (of which there is no Biblical precedent for doing) nor of the person).
Christian doctrine comes from the Bible. If it isn't in the Bible, then it should not be taught as doctrine. The passages you pointed to do not portray any of what I find about what "christmation" is supposed to be. The laying on of hands by the Apostles did not bring a person into the Church. It conveyed the Holy Spirit's miraculous empowerment to the people upon whom the Apostles laid their hands. No one other than the Apostles is ever portrayed as being able to do this, and the there are no more Apostles (haven't been since John died). So the entire practice of "christmation" is extra-Biblical, and should not be taught as "Christian doctrine".
