Actually John 10:35 very clearly uses the term the Word of God to refer to our Lord, because He had delivered the Scriptures to Moses on Mount Sinai, and the verse is a warning to the Christian church to not ignore the commandments of Christ (that can be summarized as loving God above all, and loving our neighbor as ourselves) as the Pharisees had.
We can assert it is using the phrase Word of God to refer to Jesus Christ because otherwise using Logos (Word) and Scriptures (graphe) would have been redundant, and furthermore John clearly established a Christological meaning for the word Logos in John 1. So this is a use of the phrase “Word of God” that is more obviously Christological, particularly when we consider it in the context of chapter 10 as a whole, where Christ asserts his divinity directly by saying “I and the Father are One” and in a similar manner to 10:35 also suggests that He is the Son of God.
Now, to be clear, unlike my friend
@Xeno.of.athens I believe the phrase “Word of God” can and does refer to Scripture, but that it also in all cases refers to our Lord, God and Savior Jesus Christ; it is an example of a Scriptural term that has compound meanings, just like the Greek word Logos (which does not just mean Word, but also refers to Reason, Speech, Intellect, Logic, hence the word Logic, and so on) and the Aramaic word Memra, which had theological connotations in Judaism that corresponded neatly to pre-existing theological connotations in the Greek world due to the use of the word Logos by Platonic philosophers in relationship to God.