Apology
I'd like to apologize to the readers, as if you've made it this far, this is a waste of your time. Again, Trevor has failed to understand this is a debate. He continues to monologue for the majority of his posts with sermons about the bible, failing to ever explain why the bible is acceptable evidence for this beyond any other conflicting writings about the divine. Again he has devoted scant amount towards responding to anything I have said, and what he does respond to is ridiculously insufficient.
I guess again in this non-debate, I'll respond to the even-less material Trevor has decided to dialogue with me.
The Little I Can Respond To
The subject is not the Quran or the Book of Mormon, but they are inadequate.
The subject is not the bible either. Why is your bible proof of Yahweh, but the Quran and Book of Mormon are not disproofs? Why are the sacred Hindu texts not disproofs?
My position is that “Yahweh is God”, that “Yahweh as revealed in the Bible exists and He is the One True God”.
And you have yet to give a single piece of evidence toward this. The "debate" is almost over, and I wish someone else had taken your position. Thus far, this has been nearly pointless because you aren't proving or demonstrating anything related to the topic. It's weird.
Your position is “Yahweh is not God”, but your definition “the Canaanite god Yahweh, son of El, deity of the land of Judah during the Bronze Age”.
This isn't an actual sentence, so I don't know what you mean.
Congratulations!!!, you have won your debate.
At least Pshun knew what a debate is.
I agree that the Canaanitish gods are not God.
Then that rules out Yahweh.
But I had hoped for something better, as you are a “Christian Deist” and your favourite verse is John3:16, but now you tell me “All of this is make-believe”.
My favorite verse is John 3:17, and I have favorite passages from "Oh the Places You'll Go" as well.
Are the Canaanitish gods your specialist field of study? – “Scholar, Author, Educator”.
One of my degrees is in Biblical Studies, and I have spent significant time on the Canaanite gods, one of whom is Yahweh, another El.
The first occurrence of Hebrew “El”S#410 is Genesis14:18 relating to Abraham and Melchizedek where the One True God is described as Yahweh, El and the Creator.
I don't know what S#410 is, but I'm guessing you're going to Strong's accordance? That would mean you don't know Hebrew at all, and you're just looking up words. The first occurrence of El is in Genesis 1, in which the plural (gods) is used throughout (elohim). It says, "bere’shît bara’ ’elohîm," meaning "In the beginning of the gods creating." Later, the Jewish people would recognize "elohim" to sometimes be a "majestic plural" that, though plural, meant one god (El). This was a result of Israel's move from polytheism to monotheism.
“Elohim”S#430 (not “El”S#410) occurs in Genesis 1.
Elohim is plural for El. The elohim were the gods, all of whom were descended from El, the father of all gods.
Yahweh Elohim, occurs in Genesis 2.
"Yahweh elohim" literally means "Yahweh of the gods". In order to avoid this reveal of polytheism, English translations use "Lord of lords". It is a purposeful masking of the truth.
Elohim and Yahweh occur in Genesis 3.
What's your point?
What verses in Genesis 3 do you cut or separate to fit your theory?
Again, I have no idea what you're talking about.
Yahweh does have a meaning defined in Exodus3:14 by “I will be who I will be” and Exodus6:1-5 explains this concept.
"I will be who I will be" is expressed differently than the term "yahweh" in Hebrew. I'm sure the writers of Exodus wrote the term "yawheh" meant such, but there is no grammatical support. It would be like me saying the word "God" means "all-powerful," but in reality it doesn't.
KJV translates Elohim as “gods” in Genesis3:5, Psalm82:6, “judges” in Exodus22:8 and “angels” in Psalm8:5. The plural of El is Elim Exodus15:11, not Elohim.
I don't care what the KJV does. The word "elohim" is plural for "gods" and if they're acting as judges in Exodus 22:8, that's fine. And if translators decided to translate "gods" as "angels" in Psalm 8:5, that's iffy but whatever. And yes, the plural for El can be Elim, but typically it wasn't as El can also be pronounced Eloah, thus the reason for Elohim being the plural version (and used far, far more often).
I reaffirm my statement concerning "’el ’elohe yišra’el".
I don't care because you don't read Hebrew. 'El 'elohe yišra’el absolutely means El god of Israel, and yišra’el literally means "May El persevere". I don't care what you affirm any more than if you affirm erroneous translations in other languages you don't understand.
See reference 74 in this "The Collected Letters of C.S. Lewis, Volume 2":
https://books.google.com/books?id=s...6AEwBTgU#v=onepage&q=yišra’el meaning&f=false
Conclusion
It's the third round and I'm ready for this debate to be over. This is a joke. I have nothing to debate because Trevor isn't supporting his position. He's asserting his position, he's doing a weird bible study not related to the position, but there's no support whatsoever of his claims.
I can sum up Trevor's position in three words:
False Authority Fallacy.