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Psalm 14:
Isaiah 59:
No, neither the Hebrew scriptures nor the LXX used the word "banish." According to our modern scientific scholarship, Paul did not quote Scripture. In fact, there were no opening and closing quotation marks at the time of Paul. The phrase "as it is written" was a way to punctuate or mark the beginning of a quotation.
Another example is from Rabbi Akiva ben Yosef. He was a Jewish scholar a bit after Paul's time. Sefaria:
How did scholars at the time of Jesus justify using "as it is written" or "it says" while not quoting the original verbatim?
The Hebrew Scriptures were written centuries before Jesus. By necessity, rabbis had to translate the Ancient Hebrew into contemporary Aramaic while still using the term "as it is written."
For some passages, there were variations in different manuscripts. Still, they would say, "as it is written".
Some rare ancient Hebrew words had uncertain meanings, so the rabbis had to interpret them. Still, they used the phrase "as it is written" to emphasize the authority of Hebrew Scripture.
For this OP, Paul combined two passages and quoted them as a single passage, but not verbatim.
These were reasonable scholarly practices at the time, but they did not have the same sense of precision as modern scholarship.
The apostles were inspired by the Holy Spirit to interpret ancient scriptures. These inspirations justified using the term "as it is written." They were not aiming for verbatim quotations.
Brenton Septuagint Translation:
The Redeemer from Zion will cause Jacob to rejoice by saving them from their sins.
Isaiah 59:
Brenton Septuagint Translation:
Paul summarized the above verses in Romans 11:
Did Paul quote the Hebrew scriptures?
No, neither the Hebrew scriptures nor the LXX used the word "banish." According to our modern scientific scholarship, Paul did not quote Scripture. In fact, there were no opening and closing quotation marks at the time of Paul. The phrase "as it is written" was a way to punctuate or mark the beginning of a quotation.
Another example is from Rabbi Akiva ben Yosef. He was a Jewish scholar a bit after Paul's time. Sefaria:
That's verbatim.
That's not verbatim. The string of words "ritual bath" is not verbatim in Jeremiah 17:13. He interpreted.
Right. He rightly interpreted this, but he did not scientifically quote Jeremiah 17:13.
How did scholars at the time of Jesus justify using "as it is written" or "it says" while not quoting the original verbatim?
The Hebrew Scriptures were written centuries before Jesus. By necessity, rabbis had to translate the Ancient Hebrew into contemporary Aramaic while still using the term "as it is written."
For some passages, there were variations in different manuscripts. Still, they would say, "as it is written".
Some rare ancient Hebrew words had uncertain meanings, so the rabbis had to interpret them. Still, they used the phrase "as it is written" to emphasize the authority of Hebrew Scripture.
For this OP, Paul combined two passages and quoted them as a single passage, but not verbatim.
These were reasonable scholarly practices at the time, but they did not have the same sense of precision as modern scholarship.
The apostles were inspired by the Holy Spirit to interpret ancient scriptures. These inspirations justified using the term "as it is written." They were not aiming for verbatim quotations.
