- Mar 10, 2004
- 6,608
- 443
- 39
- Faith
- Presbyterian
- Marital Status
- In Relationship
I suppose this might be better placed in a different forum, but it is an idea that I would like to share with my fellow fundamentalists.
Just to let everyone else know where I am coming from: While hold to a very literal interpretation of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:34 is the 1 verse in the Bible that has never really sat right with me. I have always it to be in my mind, how to put it, somehow just.... not right.
1 Corinthians 14:34 is as follows (NIV) : As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.
Now an idea that was brought to my attention on a thread (somewhere here in the vast majority that is CF) is as follows:
First of all (as it is always a good idea to do) look at the context in which this verse was written:
1 Corinthians 14:34 - 36 (NIV): 34As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. 36Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?
Note verse 36: Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? The idea that was brought to mind (in the thread I was reading) was the possibility that in verses 34 & 35, Paul is quoting an argument of his opponents in the church in Corinth and verse 36 is his rebuttal to their argument.
I have considered this carefully and it is the best explanation I have found that fits with the other teachings of Paul. What do you think about it?
Just to let everyone else know where I am coming from: While hold to a very literal interpretation of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:34 is the 1 verse in the Bible that has never really sat right with me. I have always it to be in my mind, how to put it, somehow just.... not right.
1 Corinthians 14:34 is as follows (NIV) : As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.
Now an idea that was brought to my attention on a thread (somewhere here in the vast majority that is CF) is as follows:
First of all (as it is always a good idea to do) look at the context in which this verse was written:
1 Corinthians 14:34 - 36 (NIV): 34As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. 36Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?
Note verse 36: Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? The idea that was brought to mind (in the thread I was reading) was the possibility that in verses 34 & 35, Paul is quoting an argument of his opponents in the church in Corinth and verse 36 is his rebuttal to their argument.
I have considered this carefully and it is the best explanation I have found that fits with the other teachings of Paul. What do you think about it?