About 1 Corinthians 14:34

Ceris

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I suppose this might be better placed in a different forum, but it is an idea that I would like to share with my fellow fundamentalists.

Just to let everyone else know where I am coming from: While hold to a very literal interpretation of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:34 is the 1 verse in the Bible that has never really sat right with me. I have always it to be in my mind, how to put it, somehow just.... not right.

1 Corinthians 14:34 is as follows (NIV) : As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.

Now an idea that was brought to my attention on a thread (somewhere here in the vast majority that is CF) is as follows:

First of all (as it is always a good idea to do) look at the context in which this verse was written:

1 Corinthians 14:34 - 36 (NIV): 34As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. 36Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?

Note verse 36: Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? The idea that was brought to mind (in the thread I was reading) was the possibility that in verses 34 & 35, Paul is quoting an argument of his opponents in the church in Corinth and verse 36 is his rebuttal to their argument.

I have considered this carefully and it is the best explanation I have found that fits with the other teachings of Paul. What do you think about it?
 

Grace_Alone4gives

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Hmmm...good questions. I am not sure on the answer. But I will state the following.
I do not believe it to be right for a Women to be ordained, or to preach from the pulpit. I believe they can lead a ministry (Womens or childrens etc...) but should not be a Pastor or Elder of the church as that requires spiritual leadership.

The way I see it is this way - and it may have nothing to do with your question but...

If my husband is to be the head of the household, yet, I myself am a Pastor - how would he have spiritual leadership over me? He couldn't, it would not work - for he would lead our household, but I his church congregation, which includes him. It does not work, nor was it intended to. Men should lead the church, spiritually and otherwise. I do not have a problem with women speaking in the church building however - I would burst if I could not open my mouth....lol ;)
 
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ChrisB

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To take the verses in context, chapter 14 deals with prophecy and speaking in tongues in church. It appears that the church in Corinth had become somewhat unruly and was bringing the Christian church as a whole into some disrepute. Specifically in verses 34-35 Paul appears to be addressing a situation where some women worshipers were disrupting services by conversing with their husbands, asking questions of them regarding the service. Elsewhere the Bible does not condemn women speaking during acts of worship

Luke 2

36There was also a prophetess, Anna, the daughter of Phanuel, of the tribe of Asher. She was very old; she had lived with her husband seven years after her marriage, 37and then was a widow until she was eighty-four.[1] She never left the temple but worshiped night and day, fasting and praying. 38Coming up to them at that very moment, she gave thanks to God and spoke about the child to all who were looking forward to the redemption of Jerusalem.


Acts 2

17" 'In the last days, God says,
I will pour out my Spirit on all people.
Your sons and daughters will prophesy,
your young men will see visions,
your old men will dream dreams.


emphasis mine (of course.....)

And of course there is the example of Deborah in Judges.

The question of women pastors, elders and deacons is slightly different - I do not hold that it is Biblical for women to be pastors or elders, although if you believe in the priesthood of all believers a pastor does not have any "special" position that anyone might desire. It is possible to justify women deacons Biblically although I accept there can be contrary views and don't regard it as an essential item of faith.
 
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Wilfred of Ivanhoe

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Ceris said:
I suppose this might be better placed in a different forum, but it is an idea that I would like to share with my fellow fundamentalists.

Just to let everyone else know where I am coming from: While hold to a very literal interpretation of the Bible, 1 Corinthians 14:34 is the 1 verse in the Bible that has never really sat right with me. I have always it to be in my mind, how to put it, somehow just.... not right.

1 Corinthians 14:34 is as follows (NIV) : As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says.

Now an idea that was brought to my attention on a thread (somewhere here in the vast majority that is CF) is as follows:

First of all (as it is always a good idea to do) look at the context in which this verse was written:

1 Corinthians 14:34 - 36 (NIV): 34As in all the congregations of the saints, women should remain silent in the churches. They are not allowed to speak, but must be in submission, as the Law says. 35If they want to inquire about something, they should ask their own husbands at home; for it is disgraceful for a woman to speak in the church. 36Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached?

Note verse 36: Did the word of God originate with you? Or are you the only people it has reached? The idea that was brought to mind (in the thread I was reading) was the possibility that in verses 34 & 35, Paul is quoting an argument of his opponents in the church in Corinth and verse 36 is his rebuttal to their argument.

I have considered this carefully and it is the best explanation I have found that fits with the other teachings of Paul. What do you think about it?

Hi Ceris,

I think you have an interesting idea. To start with, allow me to cite other passages in which Paul using a ridiculous and impossible situation to prove a point to his readers.

Hebrews 6:4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,

5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,

6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put him to an open shame.

What is Paul saying, it is ridiculous to believe that a person constantly falls in and out of grace.

Romans 14:15 But if thy brother be grieved with thy meat, now walkest thou not charitably. Destroy not him with thy meat, for whom Christ died.

Clearly we see in other passages that all whom Christ died for will come to home and none of those will be lost. Therefore, Paul is not suggesting that a person whom Christ died for could be lost.

The point of those would be to prove that this could be the case as it does occur elsewhere. Once again, we must look at context.
 
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Wilfred of Ivanhoe

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The King James text records verse 36 as follows:

36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?

To me, it says that in the New Testiment, the word of God came from the mouths of men, and not women. The second question appears to be retorical.

Just my worthless two cents.
 
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BarbB

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Wilfred of Ivanhoe said:
The King James text records verse 36 as follows:

36 What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?

To me, it says that in the New Testiment, the word of God came from the mouths of men, and not women. The second question appears to be retorical.

Just my worthless two cents.

Wilfred, your two cents is usually worth a silver dollar to me! :)
 
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