Were the added words mentioned in Jeremiah 26:32 inspired by God?

tonychanyt

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Jeremiah 36:

1In the fourth year of Jehoiakim son of Josiah king of Judah, this word came to Jeremiah from the LORD: 2“Take a scroll and write on it all the words I have spoken to you concerning Israel, Judah, and all the nations, from the day I first spoke to you during the reign of Josiah until today. 3Perhaps when the people of Judah hear about all the calamity I plan to bring upon them, each of them will turn from his wicked way. Then I will forgive their iniquity and their sin.” 4So Jeremiah called Baruch son of Neriah, and at the dictation of Jeremiah, Baruch wrote on a scroll all the words that the LORD had spoken to Jeremiah.
God spoke to Jeremiah. Jeremiah dictated it Neriah, word for word. That was the process of divine inspiration.

Neriah took the scroll to King Jehoiakim's officials. Read it to them. They asked:

17“Tell us now,” they asked Baruch, “how did you write all these words? Was it at Jeremiah’s dictation?”
18“It was at his dictation,” Baruch replied. “He recited all these words to me and I wrote them in ink on the scroll.”
Neriah confirmed that it was the word of the Lord, verbatim. After Jehoiakim heard of it, he burned the scroll. However,

27 After the king had burned the scroll containing the words that Baruch had written at Jeremiah’s dictation, the word of the LORD came to Jeremiah: 28“Take another scroll and rewrite on it the very words that were on the original scroll, which Jehoiakim king of Judah has burned.
Again, word for word, or was it?

32Then Jeremiah took another scroll and gave it to the scribe Baruch son of Neriah, and at Jeremiah’s dictation he wrote on it all the words of the scroll that Jehoiakim king of Judah had burned in the fire. And many similar words were added to them.
Did God inspire these added words? Where are these words now in the Scripture? What does this say about the process of divine inspiration?

Not every word in the Bible must be preserved critically.
 

Mark Quayle

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Did God inspire these added words? Where are these words now in the Scripture? What does this say about the process of divine inspiration?
I should think that would depend on how they were added and when. It doesn't say.
Not every word in the Bible must be preserved critically.
I disagree with what I think you mean there. Every word, phrase and sentence in the original must be dealt with as carefully as possible. The amplified versions are opinion, and where there are many words there is no lack of error. When words are substituted, the plays on words and other meaning upon meaning implied by the original arrangements of words in Scripture are lost.
 
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Mark Quayle

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Right.

Give an example verse.
John 3:8

BLB
"The wind blows where it wishes, and you hear the sound of it, but you do not know from where it comes and where it goes. Thus is everyone having been born of the Spirit."

MSG
“So don’t be so surprised when I tell you that you have to be ‘born from above’—out of this world, so to speak. You know well enough how the wind blows this way and that. You hear it rustling through the trees, but you have no idea where it comes from or where it’s headed next. That’s the way it is with everyone ‘born from above’ by the wind of God, the Spirit of God.”


John 3:16

BLB
"For God so loved the world that He gave the only begotten Son, so that everyone believing in Him should not perish, but should have eternal life."

LEB
"For in this way God loved the world, so that he gave his one and only Son, in order that everyone who believes in him will not perish, but will have eternal life."

MSG
“This is how much God loved the world: He gave his Son, his one and only Son. And this is why: so that no one need be destroyed; by believing in him, anyone can have a whole and lasting life. God didn’t go to all the trouble of sending his Son merely to point an accusing finger, telling the world how bad it was. He came to help, to put the world right again. Anyone who trusts in him is acquitted; anyone who refuses to trust him has long since been under the death sentence without knowing it. And why? Because of that person’s failure to believe in the one-of-a-kind Son of God when introduced to him.

TLB
"For God loved the world so much that he gave his only Son so that anyone who believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life."

In John 3:16, notice particularly the contrast between the LEB's and the TLB's use of the word, "so" as rendered in most other versions. The Greek, Οὕτως as I understand may imply, "so much", in some contexts, but it does not literally mean that. The simple "so", is a reasonable rendering, I think. The Bible Hub interlinear renders it "thus". I like the LEB there because of its contrast to a modern Christian mindset, that has a well-intentioned but impotent God. Kenneth Taylor (the TLB) was rendering according to his opinion, but not according to what the Greek says.

I consider the MSG as a running commentary more than even as truly a "version".
 
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